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QUESTION 94
In forecasting purchases of inventory for a firm, all of the following are useful except
A. Knowledge of the behavior of business cycles.
B. Internal allocations of costs to different segments of the firm.
C. Information on the seasonal variations in demand.
D. Econometric modeling.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internal allocations of costs relate to costs already incurred, that is. to sunk costs. Sunk costs are not relevant to decision making, for example, to forecasting future purchases.
QUESTION 95
A widely used approach that managers use to recognize uncertainty about individual items and to obtain an immediate financial estimate of the consequences of possible prediction errors is:
A. Expected value analysis.
B. Learning curve analysis.
C. Sensitivity analysis.
D. Regression analysis.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After a problem has been formulated into any mathematical model, it may be subjected to sensitivity analysis. Sensitivity analysis examines how the model's outcomes change as the parameters change.
QUESTION 96
An international nonprofit organization finances medical research. The majority of its revenue and support comes from fundraising activities, investments, and specific grants from an initial sponsoring corporation. The organization has been in operation over 15 years and has a small internal audit department. The organization has just finished a major fundraising drive that raised US $500 million for the current fiscal period. The following are selected data from recent financial statements (US dollar figures in millions): The auditor wishes to determine if the change in investment income during the current year was due to (a) changes in investment strategy, (b) changes in portfolio mix, or (c) other factors. Which of the following analytical review procedures should the auditor use?
A. Simple linear regression that compares investment income changes over the past 5 years to determine the nature of the changes.
B. Ratio analysis that compares changes in the investment portfolio on a monthly basis.
C. Trend analysis that compares the changes in investment income as a percentage of total assets and of investment assets over the past 5 years.
D. Multiple regression analysis that includes independent variables related to the nature of the investment portfolio and market conditions.
400-351 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Regression analysis develops an equation to explain the behavior of a dependent variable (for example, investment income) in terms of one or more independent variables (for example, market risk and the risks of particular investments). Multiple regression analysis is the best approach because it allows the auditor to regress the change in investment income on more than one independent variable.
QUESTION 97
Which of the following is not an appropriate time series forecasting technique?
A. Least squares.
B. Exponential smoothing.
C. The Delphi technique.
D. Moving averages.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Delphi technique is an approach in which the manager solicits opinions on a problem from experts, summarizes the opinions, and feeds the summaries back to the experts (without revealing any of the participants to each other). The process is reiterated until the opinions converge on an optimal solution. Thus, the Delphi technique is a qualitative, not a quantitative, method.
QUESTION 98
A company in the process of analyzing inventory safety stock levels is having difficulty because demand vanes widely from one week to the next. However, it has been discovered that demand occurs according to a probability distribution. Which of the following is a stochastic model that the company could use in this situation?
A. Markov process.
B. Linear programming.
C. Regression analysis.
D. Critical path network analysis.
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A stochastic model is probabilistic. Markov processes quantify the likelihood of a future event based on the current state of the process.
QUESTION 99
A company experiences both variable usage rates and variable lead times for its inventory items. The probability distributions for both usage and lead times are known. A technique the company could use for determining the optimal safety stock levels for an inventory item is:
A. Queuing theory.
B. Linear programming.
C. Decision tree analysis.
D. Monte Carlo simulation.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with mathematical models using a computer. Monte Carlo simulation is a technique to generate the individual values for a random variable. A random number generator is used to produce numbers with a uniform probability distribution. The second step of the Monte Carlo process then transforms the random numbers into values consistent with the desired distribution. The performance of a model under conditions of uncertainty may be investigated by randomly selecting values for each of the variables in the model based on the probability distribution of each variable and then calculating the value of the solution. Advantages of Monte Carlo simulation are that time can be compressed, alternative policies can be considered, and complex systems can be analyzed.
QUESTION 100
A bank is designing an on-the-job training program for its branch managers. The bank would like to design the program so that participants can complete it as quickly as possible. The training program requires that certain activities be completed before others. For example, a participant cannot make credit loan decisions without first having obtained experience in the loan department. An appropriate scheduling technique for this training program is:
A. PERT/CPM.
B. Linear programming.
C. Queuing theory.
D. Sensitivity analysis.
400-351 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PERT/CPM is a network technique for scheduling interrelated time series activities and identifying any critical paths in the series of activities The critical path is the longest path through the network.
QUESTION 101
A Gantt chart:
A. Shows the critical path for a project.
B. Is used for determining an optimal product mix.
C. Shows only the activities along the critical path of a network.
D. Does not necessarily show the critical path through a network.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The major advantage of a Gantt chart is its simplicity: It requires no special tools or mathematics. However, it depicts only the interrelationships between tasks in a limited way. Thus, trying to identify a project's critical path from a Gantt chart may not be feasible.
QUESTION 102
In the Gantt chart below, shaded bars represent completed portions of activities, bars depicted with broken lines represent uncompleted portions, and blank bars
represent activities notyet begun. As of week 8, the Gantt chart shows that the project is:
A. Complete.
B. Ahead of schedule.
C. On schedule.
D. Behind schedule.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Activities B and C are the only activities that should be underway during week 8. Since bothareunderway and on schedule, the project is on schedule.
QUESTION 103
When using PERT (Program Evaluation Review Technique), the expected time for an activity when given an optimistic time (a), a pessimistic time (b),andamostlikelytime(m) is calculated by which one of the following formulas?
A. (b-a) + 2
B. (a+b) + 2
C. (a+4m+b) + 6
D. (4abm) + 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PERT was developed to aid managers in controlling large, complex projects. PERT analysis includes probabilistic estimates of activity completion times. Three time estimates are made: optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic. The time estimates for an activity are assumed to approximate a beta probability distribution. PERT approximates the mean of the beta distribution by dividing the sum of the optimistic time, the pessimistic time, and four times the most likely time by six.
QUESTION 104
The process of adding resources to shorten selected activity times on the critical path in project scheduling is called:
A. Crashing.
B. The Delphi technique.
C. ABC analysis.
D. A branch-and-bound solution.
400-351 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Crashing is the process of adding resources to shorten activity times on the critical path in project scheduling.
QUESTION 105
The network diagram and the corresponding activity cost chart for a manufacturing project at Networks, Inc., are presented below. The numbers in the diagram are the expected times (in days) to perform each activity in the project. The expected time of the critical path is:
A. 12.0 days
B. 13.0 days
C. 11.5 days
D. 11.0 days
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The critical path is the longest path. The longest path in the diagram is A-D-E, which requires 13 days (5.5 + 7.5) based on expected times.
QUESTION 106
To keep costs at a minimum and decrease the completion time by 1-1/2 days, Networks, Inc. should crash activity(ies):
A. ADandAB
B. DE
C. AD
D. ABandCE
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The critical (longest) path is A-D-E, which has an expected time of 13 days (5.5 + 7.5). However, to decrease the project's completion time by 1.5 days, paths A-B C-E (4.5 + 1.0 + 6.5 = 12 days) and A- B-D-E (4.5 + .5 + 7.5= 12.5 days) as well as A-D-E must also be shortened. Hence, A-D-E must be reduced by 1.5 days. AB-C-E by .5 day, and A-B-D-E by 1.0 day. The only way to decrease A-D-E by 1.5 days is to crash activity AD (5.5 expected time - 4.0 crash time = 1.5 days). Crashing DE results in a 1.0-day saving (7.5-6.5) only. Crashing AB is theefficient way to reduce both A-B-C-E and A-B-D-E by the desired amount of time because it is part of both paths. The incremental cost of crashing AB is US $1,000 (US $4,000 crash cost - US $3,000 normal cost) to shorten the completion time by 1.0 day (4.5 - 3.5). The alternatives for decreasing both A-B-C-E and A-B-D-E are more costly.
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QUESTION 84
An organization has over 5,000 employees and a union has been trying to persuade the employees to join their union. Before the employees can vote in a union election, what percentage of the employee population must sign an authorization card for the union?A. Ten percent
B. Thirty percent
C. Fifty percent
D. Eighty percent
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B
ExplanationExplanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 85
Heather's organization works with a labor union work force. Heather has heard rumors that the union has been trying to create a hot cargo agreement with a supplier. What is a hot cargo agreement?
A. It forces suppliers to join the union.
B. It's a threat that the union will slow down processing orders for non-union shops.
C. It's an agreement that an employer will stop doing business with a non-union business.
D. It's an agreement to rush orders for union-based businesses.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 86
Management and union representatives are working through a collective bargaining agreement. What term is used in this process to describe arbitration that is used to resolve conflicts around contract language in the collective bargaining agreement?
A. Decisions
B. Interest arbitration
C. Ad hoc arbitration
D. Permanent arbitration
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 87
Which of the following union security clauses requires that all employees join the union within a grace period specified by the contract?
A. Agency shop clause
B. Maintenance of membership clause
C. Union shop clause
D. Closed shop clause
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option C is correct.The union shop clause requires that all employees join the union within a grace period specified by the contract.Answer option
A is incorrect. The agency shop clause specifies that all employees must either join the union or pay union dues if they choose not to join the union.Answer option
B is incorrect. The maintenance of membership clause allows employees to choose whether to join the union, but once they join, they must remain members until the expiration of the contract.Answer option
D is incorrect. The closed shop clause requires that all new hires be members of the union before they are hired.
QUESTION 88
Which of the following occurs when employees stop working and stay in the building?
A. Strike
B. Lockout
C. Wildcat strike
D. Sit-down strike
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option D is correct.A sit-down strike occurs when employees stop working and stay in the building.This is considered as an unlawful strike.Answer option A is incorrect. A strike occurs when the union decides to stop working.Answer option B is incorrect. A lockout occurs when management shuts down operations to keep the union from working.Answer option C is incorrect. A wildcat strike occurs in violation of a contract clause prohibiting strikes during the term of the contract.
QUESTION 89
Beth is a HR Professional for her organization and she's discussing the risk of growing her organization's business. What is risk and why would it be considered in HR for organizational growth?
A. Risk is an uncertain event or condition that can have a positive or negative effect on the goals of an organization.
B. Risk is an adverse event that can halt, hinder, or hurt the objectives of a business.
C. Risk is a negative event that an organization must consider when adding new employees to grow a company.
D. Risk is an uncertain event or condition that may help or hinder an organization. Adding employees can help positive risks or amplify negative risk events.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 90
The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 grants employees the right to do all of the following except which one?
A. Be advised of potential safety hazards.
B. Speak privately to an OSHA inspector during an inspection.
C. Observe the employer when measuring and monitoring workplace hazards.
D. View detailed reports of all workplace accidents.
210-451 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option D is correct.Employees have the right to review accident reports without information that identifies the employees involved in the accident. See Chapter 8 for more information.
QUESTION 91
As an HR Professional you must be familiar with several acts of congress, laws, and regulations that address risks in the workplace. Which of the following laws was the first to establish consistent safety standards for workers?
A. USA Patriot Act
B. Mine Safety and Health Act
C. Occupational Safety and Health Act
D. Homeland Security Act
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 92
As an HR Professional you should be familiar with OSHA forms for maintaining employee records. OSHA form 301 is used to document the incident that caused the work-related injury or illness. How long is an organization required to keep the form on record?
A. One year from the date of the incident
B. 90 days following the year of the incident
C. Five years following the year of the incident
D. Three years following the year of the incident
210-451 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 93
Lucas has asked his manager to take time off from work because of a holiday his religion celebrates. Fran agrees but tells Lucas that he will be inspecting his project work to ensure that the work is accurate and not suffering because of the requested time off. This is an example of what?
A. Perpetuating past discrimination
B. Religious persecution in the workforce
C. Disparate treatment
D. Quality control
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 94
One type of risk, HR Professionals must be aware of and combat is job stress. Which of the following is the best definition of job stress?
A. Stress is the degree of physical, emotional, and mental strain upon a worker from the demands and constraints of employment.
B. Stress is the lack of exercise, sleep, and good diet combined with work demands that are beyond the scope of a person's capabilities.
C. Stress is a harmful physical and emotional response that occurs when the requirements of the job don't match the capabilities, resources, or needs of the worker.
D. Stress is pressure from requirements in a workplace that are beyond the scope of job satisfaction.
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C
ExplanationExplanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 95
Which of the following contains legal provisions for giving compensation to surviving dependents if a work related injury or illness results in the employee's death?
A. OSHA
B. BLBA
C. FECA
D. FLSA
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option C is correct.Federal Employees Compensation Act (FECA) is a law that provides rules for compensation benefits to federal employees for work-related injuries or illnesses. FECA contains legal provision for giving compensation to their surviving dependents if a work-related injury or illness results in the employee's death. Answer option A is incorrect. OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration. OSHA is an agency of the United States Department of Labor. It was created by Congress
of the United States under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, signed by President Richard M. Nixon, on December 29, 1970. Its mission is to prevent work-related injuries, illnesses, and occupational fatality by issuing and enforcing standards for workplace safety and health. The agency is headed by a Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor. OSHA issues guidelines and regulations for the safe use of a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. The Black Lung Benefits Act (BLBA) is a law that provides benefits to coal miners who have been disabled by pneumoconiosis as a result of their work in the mines. Benefits are also paid to surviving dependents if the miner dies from the disease. Answer option D is incorrect. The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) defines a list of jobs not suitable for children between the ages of 16 and 18.
QUESTION 96
Richard, who works at the customer service counter in an auto-supply store, told his manager that because of chronic back pain, it is difficult for him stand for long periods and asked for an accommodation.The manager isn't sure, based on the essential job functions, how an accommodation can be provided. You advise the manager to begin the interactive process with the employee. What should the manager do to begin this process?
A. Ask Richard how his back was injured.
B. Provide a stool for Richard to use at the counter.
C. Ask Richard whether he has any suggestions for an accommodation.
D. Ask Richard to meet with HR to resolve the problem.
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option C is correct.To assess the reasonableness of a requested accommodation, employers should ask employees to describe their limitations, how those limitations affect their performance of essential job functions, and whether they have suggestions for an accommodation that would allow them to perform the functions. See Chapter 8 for more information.
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Thursday, November 30, 2017
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Exam Code: 642-998
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Q&As: 182
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QUESTION NO: 51
An __________ serves as the audit department’s statement of purpose, authority, and responsibility. Audit charters should be ___________. These are usually brief documents written in general terms. Applicable governing statutes often dictate the specific elements to include in the charter for governmental entities:
A. Audit report, not in writing
B. Audit charter, in writing
C. Financial report, in writing
D. Financial report, not in writing
642-998 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 52
Following is the information that audit charters generally address please choose the correct answer:
A. Definition of the audit unit’s responsibilities, goals, and objectives
B. The auditor’s opinion enhances the credibility of the financial statements, the user cannot assume that the opinion is an assurance as to the future viability of the entity nor the efficiency or effectiveness with which management has conducted the affairs of the entity.
C. The phrases used to express the auditor’s opinion are” give a true and fair view” or “present fairly, in all material respects,” which are equivalent terms.
D. The objective of an audit of financial statements is to enable the auditor to express an opinion whether the financial statements are prepared, in all material respects, in accordance with an identified financial reporting framework.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 53
Who should approve the charter for government entities?
A. The governing body (e.g., legislature, city council, or board)
B. The head of the unit or agency
C. A director or chief
D. Government institutions
642-998 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 54
The form and content of written policies and procedures should be appropriate to the size and structure of the auditing department and the complexity of its work. Formal administrative and technical audit manuals help employees to consistently comply with established performance standards. Then who is responsible for developing and maintaining written policies and procedures to guide audit staff?
A. The head of the audit unit
B. The head of the department
C. A director or chief
D. Audit staff
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 55
All of The following items are often contained in written auditing policies and procedures in the management of an audit function EXCEPT:
A. Definition of the audit unit’s responsibilities, goals, and objectives and Legislative or other source of audit authority
B. The reporting relationship between the audit unit and management and/or the governing Body and The process for hiring and dismissing auditors
C. Access to information and people and the scope of work to be undertaken
D. There must not be written rules.
642-998 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 56
What type of reviews are designed to determine whether the audit unit’s internal quality control system is in place and operating effectively to provide reasonable assurance that established policies and procedures and applicable auditing standards are being followed or not?
A. Formal reviews
B. Quality assurance reviews
C. Over-the-shoulder reviews
D. E-mail pass-around reviews
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 57
_________ are periodic assessments of audit quality by members of the audit staff. Where as ___________ are conducted periodically by qualified members outside the audit organization.
A. external reviews, internal reviews
B. formal reviews, external reviews
C. internal reviews, external reviews
D. periodic reviews, internal reviews
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 58
The purpose of an __________is to have an independent assessment of the quality of the audit unit’s work. Also __________ focus on assessing the extent the audit organization followed applicable standards in conducting its work:
A. External reviews, internal reviews
B. Formal reviews, external reviews
C. Internal reviews, external reviews
D. External reviews, external reviews
642-998 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 59
All of the following are the benefits of internal and external reviews EXCEPT:
A. The audit unit can learn how well its work meets applicable standards and how well it compares to that of similar audit organizations.
B. increases Professional competence and due care and confidentiality.
C. Users of audit information can have greater confidence in the quality of work produced by an audit unit that is subject to quality reviews.
D. The results of the review process enable audit department management to make necessary changes and improvements in the audit function. These adjustments might include areas such as changes in staffing policies or adjustments in training programs.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 60
If the audit organization has done what is given below then in general, reviewers can conclude there is reasonable assurance that an internal quality control system is effective. please mark the correct option:
A. Not implemented adequate audit policies and procedures.
B. Followed applicable auditing standards.
C. Implemented adequate audit policies and procedures.
D. Not followed applicable auditing standards.
642-998 exam Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 61
The characteristics of ____________ will vary based on the _____ of the audit unit and the nature of its work. Where as The frequency of required quality assurance reviews varies based on the _____ of standards followed.
A. Internal quality control systems, length, type
B. External quality control systems, size, type
C. External quality control systems, quality, type
D. Internal quality control systems, size, type
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 62
All of the following are the Specific aspects of proper audit supervision EXCEPT:
A. Ensuring that staff auditors are qualified to perform their assignments and Verifying that audit working papers adequately support audit findings, conclusions, and recommendations.
B. Providing clear and timely instructions to staff so audit objectives are achieved.
C. Approving the audit program and ensuring that it is followed, unless approved changes are made.
D. Implemented adequate audit policies and procedures.
642-998 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 63
There are _________of audit planning. The first type, which is the focus of this section, involves management’s role in setting up ___________, authorizing appropriate resources, and selecting the functional areas to be audited. The second type of audit planning, which is discussed in Section II.C.2, involves the _________ associated with specific audits.
A. Three types, the audit function, controlling
B. Three types, the control function, planning
C. Two types, the audit function, planning
D. Two types, the planning function, planning
Answer: C
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QUESTION 206:An analog signal's phase measures:
A. The number of volts from one peak to another.
B. The time required for the wave to go from peak to peak.
C. The relative difference between the peak of a signal wave and the peak of a reference wave.
D. The time required for the wave to move along the channel.
300-360 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 207:
A transmitting modem sends a carrier signal to a receiving modem. The purpose of
the carrier signal is to:
A. Carry the transmission over the network.
B. Establish the bps rate for the transmission.
C. Carry information about the packets to the receiving modem.
D. Alter the frequency, amplitude, and/or phase of the transmitted signals.
Answer: A
QUESTION 208:
You are sending data over the network and your modem has a maximum speed of
300 bps. What modulation technique is most likely being used?
A. FSK
B. KHZ
C. QAMD. DPSK
300-360 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 209:
Your modem uses the ITU V.32 modem protocol. This modem modulates the signal
by using 1 of 16 different combinations of phase and amplitude. What modulation
scheme is being used?
A. FSK
B. QAM
C. KBPS
D. DPSK
Answer: B
QUESTION 210:
In a digital data communication network, the CSU/DSU receives the signal from the
DTE and converts it into what type of signal format?
A. FSK
B. QAM
C. Line code
D. Equalized
300-360 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 211:
What type of line coding is used by most digital communications systems?
A. FSK
B. QAM
C. Bipolar
D. Unipolar
Answer: C
QUESTION 212:
To maintain synchronization between a sender and a receiver, digital data transmission relies on:
A. Specialized clocks on the receiving end.
B. Continuous voltage within the bit stream.
C. A completely digital transmission channel.
D. Frequent changes of voltage within the bit stream.
300-360 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 213:
A multiplexer is considered what type of communications equipment?
A. DTE
B. DCE
C. CSU/DSU
D. DTE interface
Answer: A
QUESTION 214:
A data transmission is using a multiplexer. The multiplexer assigns each channel to
one or more time slots based on the channel's requirements. What multiplexing
method is being used?
A. Statistical
B. Manchester
C. Time-division
D. Frequency-division
300-360 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 215:
In a call center, what is calling number ID (CLID) used for?
A. To identify the called party
B. To control the application software
C. To identify the calling party
D. To automatically bill the caller
Answer: C
QUESTION 216:
What does CTI involve?
A. Connecting a single workstation or a LAN server to a telephone switch so that thecomputer can manage voice calls.
B. Connecting telephones to computers in order to transfer data.
C. Integrating computers, modems, and fax equipment on the same telephone line.
D. Integrating telephone switching to accommodate data and voice on the same lines.
300-360 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 217:
Which of the following statements most accurately describes predictive dialing?
A. This system is programmed to dial numbers and connect the called party to a
telephone services representative.
B. This system answers a company's telephones.
C. This system translates spoken language into data for entry in computer databases and other applications.
D. This system manages incoming telephone calls to route them to the appropriate
service representative.
Answer:
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Friday, November 17, 2017
[Helpful] Discount Cisco SIMOS 300-209 Dumps Study Guide Real Demo With High Quality Youtube Study
"Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions", also known as 300-209 exam, is a Cisco certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, Discount Cisco SIMOS 300-209 dumps study guide real demo with high quality youtube study. Pass4itsure has assembled to take you through 271 Q&As to your 300-209 exam preparation. Check below Pass4itsure updated https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-209.html dumps.
Exam Code: 300-209
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions
Q&As: 271
Cisco 300-209 Dumps From Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWTlN6bWE4ckRMNmc
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Cisco Exam Pass4itsure 300-209 Dumps PDF Blog Series:
QUESTION NO: 50
What are three steps in an employee gap analysis? (Choose three)
A. identify employee skills
B. list the skills of each employee and compare them to each other
C. compare the job skills for the employee's current position to the skills required for the next job level.
D. Compare the variance in an employee's current skills to the required for a specific job for which an employee is being considered (or the employee's current position)
300-209 exam Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 51
Which two benefits do managers receive for conducting customer satisfaction surveys and reporting the results? (Choose two)
A. Customers care how your Help Desk is doing
B. Help Desk performance can be measured against expectations
C. Customers are more likely to provide responses of futuresurvey's
D. The feedback may indicate whether or not you are meeting your mission
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 52
What are two benefits of external outsourcing?
A. It improves teamwork
B. It frees up space and equipment for internal growth.
C. It allows rapid improvement in support quality without impacting the customers being supported
D. It allows management to focus on the quality of the service provided rather than on the processes for delivering the service
300-209 dumps Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 53
What should the Help Desk consider when working with different customers?
A. All customers consider their problem to be an emergency
B. All customers are unique individuals with their own perceptions
C. All customers have similar expectations regarding quality service
D. Customers who work for the same company have similar expectations
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 54
Which two commonly used technologies provide near real-time feedback on organizational performance? (Choose two)
A. web
B. e-mail
C. telephone
D. Call Management Systems
E. Broadcast messaging devices
300-209 pdf Answer: D,E
QUESTION NO: 55
What are two roles of expert systems in Help Desk applications? (Choose two)
A. to narrow down the type of problem and suggest resolutions
B. to provide Help Desk analysts with answers to every customer QUESTION NO:
C. to provide a direct channel to vendor's marketing departments for new systems
D. to provide assistances to second-level analysts for more advanced troubleshooting
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 56
When the morale of the team is low, which two points of personal leverage can you use to help motivate your staff? (Choose two)
A. take the time to recruit and hire new employees
B. produce individual and team performance reports
C. demonstrate your commitment to the organization
D. seek feedback from the analysts on job difficulties
300-209 vce Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 57
What should you use to define a Help Desk's role in an organization?
A. job descriptions
B. development plans
C. goals and objectives
D. vision and mission statement
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 58
What contributes most to creative and effective problem solving?
A. practice
B. education
C. technical training
D. standard resolutions
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 59
What are two roles of expert systems in Help Desk applications? (Choose two)
A. to narrow the typepf problem and suggest resolutions
B. to provide Help Desk analysts with answers to every customer QUESTION NO:
C. to provide a direct channel to vendor's marketing departments for new systems
D. to provide assistance to second-level analysts for more advanced troubleshooting
300-209 exam Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 60
A customer could not get through to a support representative when calling the Help Desk in the morning. He had to call back later. Which metric captures this situation?
A. Time in Queue
B. Abandonment Rate
C. Average Speed Answer
D. First Call Resolution Rate
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 61
Which concept refers to identifying required staffing based on projected volume?
A. insourcing
B. outsourcing
C. trend awareness
D. resource planning
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 62
When the morale of the team is low, which two points of personal leverage can you use to help motivate your staff? (Choose two)
A. take the time recruit and hire new employees
B. produce individual and team performance reports
C. demonstrate your commitment to the organization
D. seek feedback from the analysts on job difficulties
300-209 dumps Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 63
How does a Computer Telephony Integration system interface with a Customer Management System to make trouble reporting more effective?
A. It automatically solves customer problems.
B. It eliminates the need for monitoring call volume.
C. It eliminates the need for training Help Desk analysts.
D. It automatically exchanges accurate and useful information.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 64
What are three characteristics of performance measurement? (Choose three)
A. reliable
B. realistic
C. inflexible
D. objective
E. subjective
300-209 pdf Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 65
Which two tools can the Help Desk most effectively use to provide key information to all customers and communicate the severity of a problem rapidly? (Choose two)
A. e-mail
B. voice mail
C. white boards
D. instant messenger
E. overnight express mail
Answer: A,B
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Thursday, November 2, 2017
[Helpful] New Cisco 300-070 Dumps CIPTV1 PDF Covers All Key Points
"Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0", also known as 300-070 exam, is a Cisco certification. New Cisco 300-070 dumps pdf covers all key points. With the complete collection of questions and answers,
Pass4itsure has assembled to take you through 189 Q&As to your 300-070 dumps exam preparation. Some of them who have passed the Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-070.html dumps also use Pass4isture's products. Selecting Pass4isture means choosing a success.
Exam Code: 300-070
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0
Q&As: 189
Cisco 300-070 Dumps From Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVTN3Mm5VOFZCWVU
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Cisco Exam Pass4itsure 300-070 Dumps PDF Blog Series:
QUESTION NO: 61
Which of the following tools can be used to detect the steganography?
A. Dskprobe
B. Blindside
C. ImageHide
D. Snow
300-070 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
In which of the following scanning methods do Windows operating systems send only RST packets irrespective of whether the port is open or closed?
A. TCP FIN
B. FTP bounce
C. XMAS
D. TCP SYN
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
Which of the following tools is used to download the Web pages of a Website on the local system?
A. wget
B. jplag
C. Nessus
D. Ettercap
300-070 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
Many organizations create network maps of their network system to visualize the network and understand the relationship between the end devices and the transport layer that provide services. Which of the following are the techniques used for network mapping by large organizations? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Packet crafting
B. Route analytics
C. SNMP-based approaches
D. Active Probing
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following functions can you use to mitigate a command injection attack? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. escapeshellarg()
B. escapeshellcmd()
C. htmlentities()
D. strip_tags()
300-070 pdf Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66
Which of the following takes control of a session between a server and a client using TELNET,FTP, or any other non-encrypted TCP/IP utility?
A. Dictionary attack
B. Session Hijacking
C. Trojan horse
D. Social Engineering
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 67
Adam works as a Senior Programmer for Umbrella Inc. A project has been assigned to him to write a short program to gather user input for a Web application. He wants to keep his program neat and simple. His chooses to use printf(str) where he should have ideally used printf("%s", str). What attack will his program expose the Web application to?
A. Format string attack
B. Cross Site Scripting attack
C. SQL injection attack
D. Sequence++ attack
300-070 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 68
Adam works as a sales manager for Umbrella Inc. He wants to download software from the Internet. As the software comes from a site in his untrusted zone, Adam wants to ensure that the downloaded software has not been Trojaned. Which of the following options would indicate the best course of action for Adam?
A. Compare the file size of the software with the one given on the Website.
B. Compare the version of the software with the one published on the distribution media.
C. Compare the file's virus signature with the one published on the distribution.
D. Compare the file's MD5 signature with the one published on the distribution media.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69
Maria works as a professional Ethical Hacker. She is assigned a project to test the security of www.we-are-secure.com. She wants to test a DoS attack on the We-are-secure server. She finds that the firewall of the server is blocking the ICMP messages, but it is not checking the UDP packets. Therefore, she sends a large amount of UDP echo request traffic to the IP broadcast addresses. These UDP requests have a spoofed source address of the We-are-secure server.Which of the following DoS attacks is Maria using to accomplish her task?
A. Ping flood attack
B. Fraggle DoS attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Smurf DoS attack
300-070 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
Which of the following Incident handling process phases is responsible for defining rules, collaborating human workforce, creating a back-up plan, and testing the plans for an enterprise?
A. Preparation phase
B. Eradication phase
C. Identification phase
D. Recovery phase
E. Containment phase
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 71
Which of the following is a computer worm that caused a denial of service on some Internet hosts and dramatically slowed down general Internet traffic?
A. Klez
B. Code red
C. SQL Slammer
D. Beast
300-070 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72
Which of the following is designed to protect the Internet resolvers (clients) from forged DNS data created by DNS cache poisoning?
A. Stub resolver
B. BINDER
C. Split-horizon DNS
D. Domain Name System Extension (DNSSEC)
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
You work as a System Engineer for Cyber World Inc. Your company has a single Active Directory domain. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2008. The Microsoft Hyper-V server role has been installed on one of the servers, namely uC1. uC1 hosts twelve virtual machines. You have been given the task to configure the Shutdown option for uC1, so that each virtual machine shuts down before the main Hyper-V server shuts down. Which of the following actions will you perform to accomplish the task?
A. Enable the Shut Down the Guest Operating System option in the Automatic Stop Action Properties on each virtual machine.
B. Manually shut down each of the guest operating systems before the server shuts down.
C. Create a batch file to shut down the guest operating system before the server shuts down.
D. Create a logon script to shut down the guest operating system before the server shuts down.
300-070 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
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Exam Code: 300-070
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0
Q&As: 189
Cisco 300-070 Dumps From Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVTN3Mm5VOFZCWVU
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![]() |
QUESTION NO: 61
Which of the following tools can be used to detect the steganography?
A. Dskprobe
B. Blindside
C. ImageHide
D. Snow
300-070 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
In which of the following scanning methods do Windows operating systems send only RST packets irrespective of whether the port is open or closed?
A. TCP FIN
B. FTP bounce
C. XMAS
D. TCP SYN
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
Which of the following tools is used to download the Web pages of a Website on the local system?
A. wget
B. jplag
C. Nessus
D. Ettercap
300-070 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
Many organizations create network maps of their network system to visualize the network and understand the relationship between the end devices and the transport layer that provide services. Which of the following are the techniques used for network mapping by large organizations? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Packet crafting
B. Route analytics
C. SNMP-based approaches
D. Active Probing
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following functions can you use to mitigate a command injection attack? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. escapeshellarg()
B. escapeshellcmd()
C. htmlentities()
D. strip_tags()
300-070 pdf Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66
Which of the following takes control of a session between a server and a client using TELNET,FTP, or any other non-encrypted TCP/IP utility?
A. Dictionary attack
B. Session Hijacking
C. Trojan horse
D. Social Engineering
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 67
Adam works as a Senior Programmer for Umbrella Inc. A project has been assigned to him to write a short program to gather user input for a Web application. He wants to keep his program neat and simple. His chooses to use printf(str) where he should have ideally used printf("%s", str). What attack will his program expose the Web application to?
A. Format string attack
B. Cross Site Scripting attack
C. SQL injection attack
D. Sequence++ attack
300-070 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 68
Adam works as a sales manager for Umbrella Inc. He wants to download software from the Internet. As the software comes from a site in his untrusted zone, Adam wants to ensure that the downloaded software has not been Trojaned. Which of the following options would indicate the best course of action for Adam?
A. Compare the file size of the software with the one given on the Website.
B. Compare the version of the software with the one published on the distribution media.
C. Compare the file's virus signature with the one published on the distribution.
D. Compare the file's MD5 signature with the one published on the distribution media.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69
Maria works as a professional Ethical Hacker. She is assigned a project to test the security of www.we-are-secure.com. She wants to test a DoS attack on the We-are-secure server. She finds that the firewall of the server is blocking the ICMP messages, but it is not checking the UDP packets. Therefore, she sends a large amount of UDP echo request traffic to the IP broadcast addresses. These UDP requests have a spoofed source address of the We-are-secure server.Which of the following DoS attacks is Maria using to accomplish her task?
A. Ping flood attack
B. Fraggle DoS attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Smurf DoS attack
300-070 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
Which of the following Incident handling process phases is responsible for defining rules, collaborating human workforce, creating a back-up plan, and testing the plans for an enterprise?
A. Preparation phase
B. Eradication phase
C. Identification phase
D. Recovery phase
E. Containment phase
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 71
Which of the following is a computer worm that caused a denial of service on some Internet hosts and dramatically slowed down general Internet traffic?
A. Klez
B. Code red
C. SQL Slammer
D. Beast
300-070 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72
Which of the following is designed to protect the Internet resolvers (clients) from forged DNS data created by DNS cache poisoning?
A. Stub resolver
B. BINDER
C. Split-horizon DNS
D. Domain Name System Extension (DNSSEC)
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
You work as a System Engineer for Cyber World Inc. Your company has a single Active Directory domain. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2008. The Microsoft Hyper-V server role has been installed on one of the servers, namely uC1. uC1 hosts twelve virtual machines. You have been given the task to configure the Shutdown option for uC1, so that each virtual machine shuts down before the main Hyper-V server shuts down. Which of the following actions will you perform to accomplish the task?
A. Enable the Shut Down the Guest Operating System option in the Automatic Stop Action Properties on each virtual machine.
B. Manually shut down each of the guest operating systems before the server shuts down.
C. Create a batch file to shut down the guest operating system before the server shuts down.
D. Create a logon script to shut down the guest operating system before the server shuts down.
300-070 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
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[Helpful] New Release Cisco 300-206 Dumps SENSS PDF Preparation Materials With Discount
"Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions", also known as 300-206 exam, is a Cisco certification. New release Cisco 300-206 dumps pdf preparation materials with new discount.
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Exam Code: 300-206
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions
Updated: Oct 22, 2017
Q&As: 254
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QUESTION: 79
In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office
300-206 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 80
At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest
A. Final phase of the project
B. Start of the project
C. End of the project
D. Midpoint of the project
Answer: B
QUESTION: 81
When do stakeholders have the greatest influence?
A. At the start of the project
B. At the end of the project
C. During executionD. Stakeholders have constant influence
300-206 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 82
Which of the following provides a comprehensive and consistent method of controlling the project and ensuring its success?
A. Stakeholder management
B. Monitoring and controlling
C. Project governance
D. Project management methodology
Answer: C
QUESTION: 83
Company A is delivering a product in three parts. The contract allows for the parts to be delivered either one after the other or at the same time. Which type of project phasing will allow for the most flexibility in delivering the full product when product requirements are subject to rapid change?
A. Sequencing the delivery phases one after the other
B. Overlapping the delivery phases
C. Delivering the products iteratively
D. Delivering all of the product at the same time
300-206 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 84
In which type of organization does a project manager have a moderate-to-high resource
availability?
A. Functional
B. Weak
C. Balanced
D. StrongAnswer: D
QUESTION: 85
Which stakeholder is responsible for managing related projects in a coordinated way?
A. Sponsor
B. Portfolio manager
C. Program manager
D. Project manager
300-206 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 86
In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have full authority on a project?
A. Functional
B. Strong matrix
C. Balanced matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D
QUESTION: 87
What are three basic types of project phase-to-phase relationships?
A. Sequential, Overlapping, Non-overlapping
B. Sequential, Iterative, Overlapping
C. Sequential, Non-overlapping, Iterative
D. Iterative, Overlapping, Non-overlapping
300-206 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 88
Which is a true statement regarding project governance?
A. Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan.
B. Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it.
C. Once a project has begun, it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase.
D. Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project phase.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 89
A project manager has limited authority in which type of organizational structure?
A. Weak matrix
B. Functional
C. Balanced matrix
D. Projectized
300-206 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 90
Which of the following is an input to direct and manage project execution?
A. Requested changes
B. Approved preventive action
C. Work performance information
D. Implemented defect repair
Answer: B
QUESTION: 91
Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?
A. Project stakeholders
B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project manager and project sponsor
300-206 pdf Answer: C
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Exam Code: 300-206
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions
Updated: Oct 22, 2017
Q&As: 254
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QUESTION: 79
In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office
300-206 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 80
At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest
A. Final phase of the project
B. Start of the project
C. End of the project
D. Midpoint of the project
Answer: B
QUESTION: 81
When do stakeholders have the greatest influence?
A. At the start of the project
B. At the end of the project
C. During executionD. Stakeholders have constant influence
300-206 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 82
Which of the following provides a comprehensive and consistent method of controlling the project and ensuring its success?
A. Stakeholder management
B. Monitoring and controlling
C. Project governance
D. Project management methodology
Answer: C
QUESTION: 83
Company A is delivering a product in three parts. The contract allows for the parts to be delivered either one after the other or at the same time. Which type of project phasing will allow for the most flexibility in delivering the full product when product requirements are subject to rapid change?
A. Sequencing the delivery phases one after the other
B. Overlapping the delivery phases
C. Delivering the products iteratively
D. Delivering all of the product at the same time
300-206 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 84
In which type of organization does a project manager have a moderate-to-high resource
availability?
A. Functional
B. Weak
C. Balanced
D. StrongAnswer: D
QUESTION: 85
Which stakeholder is responsible for managing related projects in a coordinated way?
A. Sponsor
B. Portfolio manager
C. Program manager
D. Project manager
300-206 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 86
In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have full authority on a project?
A. Functional
B. Strong matrix
C. Balanced matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D
QUESTION: 87
What are three basic types of project phase-to-phase relationships?
A. Sequential, Overlapping, Non-overlapping
B. Sequential, Iterative, Overlapping
C. Sequential, Non-overlapping, Iterative
D. Iterative, Overlapping, Non-overlapping
300-206 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 88
Which is a true statement regarding project governance?
A. Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan.
B. Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it.
C. Once a project has begun, it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase.
D. Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project phase.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 89
A project manager has limited authority in which type of organizational structure?
A. Weak matrix
B. Functional
C. Balanced matrix
D. Projectized
300-206 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 90
Which of the following is an input to direct and manage project execution?
A. Requested changes
B. Approved preventive action
C. Work performance information
D. Implemented defect repair
Answer: B
QUESTION: 91
Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?
A. Project stakeholders
B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project manager and project sponsor
300-206 pdf Answer: C
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