"CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0)", also known as 400-251 exam, is a Cisco Certification. Download Latest Cisco 400-251 dumps practise questions, pass CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0).
With the complete collection of questions and answers, Pass4itsure has assembled to take you through 520 Q&As to your 400-251 exam preparation. Simulation tests before the formal Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-251.html dumps are necessary,
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Exam Code: 400-251
Exam Name: CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0)
Q&As: 520
Cisco 400-251 Dumps From Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWN3NKQ2VvYmxCMDg
Microsoft 70-534 Dumps From Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWdmxvVW43RmxVM2M
Question: 20
What are two benefits of using NetApp Protection Manager? (Choose two.)
A. centralized management of multiple NetApp devices
B. simplified management for D2D backup and restore
C. simplified management for data replication
D. centralized chargeback reporting
400-251 exam Answer: B, C
Question: 21
What can a customer use to quickly manage the full recovery process following a database corruption?
A. RAID-DP
B. SnapMirror
C. SnapManager
D. SnapRestore
Answer: C
Question: 22
A customer utilizing NetApp storage for Windows and/or UNIX file services can expect to realize which benefit as it pertains to having a better RPO?
A. minimal amount of data loss
B. more concurrent users
C. minimal time to recover files
D. greater storage utilization
400-251 dumps Answer: A
Question: 23
What are two ways in which NetApp solutions can help businesses? (Choose two.)
A. by improving business processes
B. by adopting new technology
C. by gaining a competitive advantage
D. by lowering the hardware requirements
Answer: A, C
Question: 24
Which NetApp disk-to-disk backup and recovery solution should a customer consider installing in remote offices when their data resides on Windows and Linux platforms?
A. SnapVault for NetBackup
B. Open Systems SnapVault
C. SnapVault
D. NearStore VTL
400-251 pdf Answer: B
Question: 25
High performance computing (HPC), data-intensive applications (such as seismic processing, digital image creation and media hosting) demand the ability to scale which two factors to extreme levels? (Choose two.)
A. storage capacity
B. performance
C. clustering
D. Total Cost of Ownership
Answer: A, B
Question: 26
What are three benefits of using NetApp storage to support VMware environments? (Choose three.)
A. cloning of virtual machines with no storage overhead
B. support for compliant storage
C. near instantaneous backup and restore capabilities
D. support for encryption
E. support for all of the storage protocols supported by VMware
400-251 vce Answer: A, C, E
Question: 27
A Windows storage consolidation objection you might encounter is that Microsoft provides only limited support for Windows when NetApp is involved. What is the most appropriate response to this objection?
A. Microsoft and NetApp provide joint support through an OEM Premier Support Agreement.
B. NetApp unified storage enables content and/or Write Once Read Many (WORM) storage on any NetApp system allowing Exchange to be more efficient.
C. NetApp and Microsoft have a licensing agreement wherein Microsoft shares Windows communication protocols for data storage.
D. NetApp experience in large-scale enterprise deployments has earned the trust of thousands of enterprise customers.
Answer: A
Question: 28
Which three customer challenges does a NetApp storage solution for a NAS environment address? (Choose three.)
A. SAN fabric costs
B. disruptive storage provisioning
C. server platform deployment
D. storage utilization
E. data sharing between UNIX and Windows
400-251 exam Answer: B, D, E
Question: 29
Click the exhibit button. Given the following BayStack 325-24T switch configuration: VLAN 10 is a port based VLAN. Port 1 is an untagged member of VLAN 10. Port 5 is a tagged member of VLAN 10. The device on Port 1 transmits an untagged frame to the device on Port 5. How will an untagged frame be treated when it reaches Port 5 on this switch?
A. It will be discarded when it is received.
B. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 6, it will be tagged, and transmitted out Port 5 with Priority 2.
C. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 6, it will be tagged, and transmitted out Port 5 with Priority 6.
D. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 2, it will be tagged, and transmitted out Port 5 with Priority 2.
Answer: C
Question: 30
Given the following information: A BayStack 460-24T-PWR switch is being installed. The switch will be fully populated with all devices requiring Power over Ethernet (PoE). The switch has been connected to both internal and external power sources. The switch will be configured through web-based management. Once you access the BayStack 460 via the BS460_24T_PWR(config)#poe poe-dc-source command, which configuration will provide the most power to supply PoE to the connected devices?
A. nes -Set DC power source from NES
B. rpsu - Set DC power source from the rpsu
C. baystack10 -Set DC power source from BayStack 10
D. unit -Set power pairs of another unit in a stack
400-251 dumps Answer:A
Question: 31
What is required to apply traffic shaping to an uplink connection from a BayStack 470-48T switch to the Passport 8600 using the Web-based Management System Interface?
A. a Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)
B. NO additional equipment is required
C. a Gigabit Interface Connector (GBIC)
D. a mini Gigabit Interface Connector (GBIC)
Answer: C
Question: 32
You have installed a new BayStack 460-24T switch into a customer's network and are using the QoS Wizard to configure the QoS settings for various IP traffic flows. Which two IP applications can you directly choose in the QoS Wizard to prioritize inbound frames based on traffic type? (Choose two.)
A. E-mail (SMTP)
B. File Transfer (FTP)
C. Multicasting (IGMP)
D. Trivial File Transfer (TFTP)
E. Network Management (SNMP)
400-251 pdf Answer:AB
Question: 33
On a BayStack 470 switch you need to disable Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping for a customer's VLAN (100). Using the Console Interface (CI) Menus, how should you accomplish this task?
A. From the VLAN configuration screen disable IGMP proxy for VLAN 100.
B. From the VLAN configuration screen disable IGMP snooping for VLAN 100.
C. From the VLAN configuration screen, configure the VLAN setup of port 100.
D. From the Switch configuration screen choose IGMP configuration and disable IGMP snooping for
VLAN 100.
Answer: B
Question: 34
Given the following information: A customer has a stack of four BayStack BPS switches configured in pure mode and functioning properly. Two BayStack 450-24T switches are added to the stack to increase its capacity and the BayStack BPS stack operation mode is changed to hybrid. After rebooting the stack, it appears to be functioning properly but, all VLAN configurations have been lost. What is the most likely cause of this issue and which action should you take to resolve it?
A. A BayStack 450-24T has incorrectly been assigned as the base unit. Define a BayStack BPS as the base unit and power cycle the stack to resolve the issue.
B. The Interoperability Software Version Number (ISVN) of the BayStack 450-24T software does NOT match the ISVN of the BayStack BPS software. Upgrade the BayStack 450-24T software to resolve the issue.
C. A hybrid stack only supports 64 VLANs. If more are defined on a pure BayStack BPS stack, when you change to hybrid mode you will lose all the VLANs. A maximum of 64 VLANs can be re-entered to resolve the issue.
D. When changing from a pure to a hybrid stack, the VLAN configuration will always be lost. Before changing to hybrid mode, the configuration file must be downloaded to a TFTP server, and then uploaded after changing to hybrid mode.
400-251 vce Answer: C
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