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Updated Cisco 600-455 exam questions and 600-455 answers

QUESTION 1

Which two statements about a Contact Center Enterprise solution in virtualized environment are true? (Choose two.)

A. UCS B/C series NIC teaming is supported.

B. 10/100 NIC speeds are supported.

C. Gigabit Ethernet Auto Negotiation is optional for NIC and switch.

D. 802.1Q uplinks to VMware hosts must not be configured for host/edge spanning-tree forwarding.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2

You deploy Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise on a Cisco UCS C-Series Server and Unified Contact Center

Enterprise is split over WAN with a dedicated WAN circuit for United CCE private traffic. Which two statements about

QoS are true? (Choose two.)

A. Disable QoS because it is not needed, and the Cisco UCS C-Series Server includes multiple NICs and dedicated

NICs for certain VM traffic environment.

B. Enable QoS for United CCE on Cisco UCS C-Series VMware-based environment.

C. Disable QoS for United CCE on Cisco UCS B-Series VMware-based environment.

D. Enable QoS for United CCE on Cisco UCS B-Series VMware-based environment.

E. Enable QoS only for United CCE on third-party spec-based, VMware-based environment.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit.

In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, in Supervisor Gadget under the Queue Statistics pane, which option describes

what the Other column represents?

A. number of agents assigned to the queue who are on inbound calls

B. number of calls handled by the agents associated with that queue

C. number of agents assigned to the queue who are on outbound calls

D. number of agents assigned to the queue who are on internal consult calls

E. number of agents assigned to the other queues

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Which three statements about the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Post Call Survey are true? (Choose three.)

A. For reporting purposes, the Post Call Survey call has the same CallGUID and call context as the original inbound

call.

B. For reporting purposes, the Post Call Survey call has the ICM Router Key and call context from the original inbound

call.

C. The call context for the Post Call Survey includes all contexts up to the point where the call is transferred to the

agent. Context that the agent creates after the transfer is not included in the Post Call Survey context.

D. This feature lets you configure a call flow that, after the caller disconnects from the agent, optionally sends the call to

a dialed number configured for a Post Call Survey.

E. If you want to use the Post Call Survey feature through Unified CVP, you must configure it on the reporting server.

Also, you can configure the Unified ICM script to toggle the use of Post Call Survey off and on.

F. If you want to use the Post Call Survey feature through Unified CVP, you must configure it on the call server. Also,

you can configure the Unified ICM script to toggle the use of Post Call Survey off and on.

Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 5

In Cisco Finesse 10.0(x), Which is the last operation a supervisor need to perform in order to intercept the call?

A. after a supervisor has transferred the call.

B. after a supervisor has selected to talking agent for monitoring

C. after a supervisor has started monitoring a call

D. after a supervisor has barged into a call

Correct Answer: D

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810-440 DTBAA

Associated Certification
Cisco Business Architecture Analyst
Cisco Business Architecture Specialist
Cisco Business Architecture Practitioner
Duration: 90 minutes (55 - 65 questions)
Available Languages: English, Japanese

Cisco 810-440 Actual Free Exam Questions 1-5

QUESTION 1Which could be a layer within an enterprise architecture?
A. Business services
B. Service level commitments
C. Organization\\'s reporting structure
D. Project office\\'s governance practices
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2Which two benefits of using a Cisco Business Architecture methodology are true? (Choose two.)
A. It supports the client IT department to define the technology architecture.
B. It determines the low-level design for network infrastructure.
C. It enhances the way Cisco does business with its customers.
D. It drives larger and more profitable results for customers, Cisco, and partners.
E. It provides project management of a complex technology deployment.
Correct Answer: CD  

QUESTION 3Drag and drop the type of sale model on the left to the business driver on the right.
Select and Place:  

Correct Answer: 

QUESTION 4Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5What is a key differentiator of the Cisco Data Analytics market solution?
A. It manages a higher volume of data than the competition.
B. It sets new standards for data capture and storage.
C. It includes a new Cisco category of cloud applications.
D. It offers an end-to-end industry platform.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1Which outcome is the best that a Customer Success Manager can achieve for a customer?
A. adoption of all the licenses and features the customer purchased leading to expansion to improve the customer\\'s
business
B. full adoption of all the technologies the customer purchased
C. removing barriers so the customer achieves the fastest time to value possible from the solution they purchased
D. ensuring the customers deployment teams and end users are trained and ready to adopt the technology
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2The customer plans to relocate to a new building in the existing area to reduce cost. The company wants to retain talent
through this transition. Which two business outcomes are critical to the company\\'s success? (Choose two.)
A. risk management
B. employee satisfaction
C. cost efficiency
D. credibility E. sustainability
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3Which two actions are critical when communicating with executives? (Choose two.)
A. Keep services as a primary topic
B. Focus on the value achieved
C. Incorporate the sales team\\'s plan
D. Target executive priorities
E. Focus on technical details
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4In which stage does the Customer Success Manager initially validate stakeholders?
A. onboarding
B. deployment
C. utilization
D. purchase
Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 5Which of these is included in a success plan?
A. confidential customer information
B. customer business outcomes
C. customer HR processes
D. services cost
Correct Answer: BD 

 

  

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QUESTION 1Which protocol is used during PPP negotiation to assign an IP address to the mobile device for a simple IP
call?
A. LCP
B. IPCP
C. CHAP
D. EAPCorrect Answer: B

QUESTION 2Which is an attribute in MIP RRQ?
A. Correlation ID
B. NAS-Identifier
C. Framed-IP-Address
D. Care-of-Address
E. Framed-Interface-IDCorrect Answer: D

QUESTION 3Which bit in HA Registration Revocation message is used by PDSN/FA to determine Mobile notification?
A. 'A' bit
B. 'I' bit
C. 'M' bit
D. 'R' bitCorrect Answer: B

QUESTION 4What interface uses PMIPv6?
A. S1
B. S2a
C. S6a
D. STaCorrect Answer: B

QUESTION 5Where does the UE/Mobile obtain its IPv6 prefix?
A. The address prefix from HSGW VSNCP message
B. The address prefix from HSGW Router Advertisement
C. The address prefix from HSGW Neighbor Solicitation
D. The address prefix from HSGW Router SolicitationCorrect Answer: B  

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QUESTION 1

Which uRPF mode specifies that the source address of the packet is checked against the FIB to make sure that it is

being received on the interface that is selected as the best path to this source address?

A. strict mode

B. loose mode

C. asymmetric mode

D. symmetric mode

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which of the following configurations adds a community to routes that are matched on AS criteria?

A. route-policy policy1if as-path in set1 thenset community (356:1000)endifend-policy

B. route-policy policy1if community in set1 thenset community (356:1000) additiveendifend-policy

C. route-policy policy1if as-path in set1 thenset community (356:1000) additiveendifend-policy

D. route-policy policy1if as-path neighbor-is set1 thenset community (356:1000) additiveendifend- policy

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Which command should be used to view only the running configuration of OSPF in Cisco IOS XR Software?

A. show router osp

B. show run router ospf

C. show configuration ospf

D. show ospf configuration | running-config

E. show ospf process

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Which two of the following are correct commands to activate the PIE file ? (Choose two.)

A. install add tftp://172.20.165.36/hfr-mgbl-p.pie-4.0.1 activate

B. install activate tftp://172.20.165.36/hfr-mgbl-p.pie-4.0.1

C. install add disk0:hfr-mgbl-p-4.0.1 activate

D. install activate disk0:hfr-mgbl-p.pie-4.0.1

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5

Which command will correctly deactivate asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0?

A. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (admin)#install remove disk0:asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0

B. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (config)#install deactivate smu location disk0:

C. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (admin-config)#deactivate disk0:asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0

D. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (admin)#install deactivate disk0:asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0

E. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 #asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0 disk0:deactivate sync

Correct Answer: D

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Practice | Cisco 200-401 Exam Questions

QUESTION 1

At which Layer would you troubleshoot a cabling issue?

A. Layer 1

B. Layer 2

C. Layer 3

D. Layer 4

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

You are a called upon to troubleshoot connectivity problems to a network device on a production floor. You have used

ping and traceroute to verify that you cannot connect to the device from the management network. The network is

209.165.202.128/27 and the device has been given the IP address 209.165.202.158 and mask 255.255.255.224. You

have verified that you can reach the device with your computer connected to the same switch as the device. What could

be the cause of this problem?

A. The device is set to the wrong subnet mask.

B. The device is set to the wrong IP address.

C. The device has no IP default gateway.

D. The device is connected to a switchport in the wrong VLAN.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Which two reasons make mesh bonding systems most effective? (Choose two.)

A. cover wide areas

B. provide additional strength to floor structures

C. provide low-impedance noise-equalizing paths

D. create equipotential grounding systems

E. most cost-effective approach

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4

What should be done with unused conductors in copper unshielded or shielded twisted-pair network cables?

A. terminate in their characteristic impedance

B. trim back and properly insulate

C. connect to protective earth

D. splice to a used conductor

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5Which option allows an EtherNet/IP I/O device to be safely installed where it is subject to water immersion?
A. The device is rated IP20 and the power wiring is installed securely to the terminal block.
B. The device is rated IP67 and a power cordset is used.
C. The device is rated IP67 and immersed to 10 m.
D. The device is rated IP20 and immersed to 10 m.
Correct Answer: B  

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Cisco Certified DevNet Professional 300-920 exam actual questions [2020]

QUESTION 1
A Webex Teams bot is deployed but soon it stops responding. Which two explanations are the cause of the issue?
(Choose two.)
A. A new webhook was created, which marks the old webhook as inactive.
B. The web server that is set to receive webhooks is not configured to return a 200 message. And the webhook is
disabled.
C. The webhook secret is expired and must be refreshed.
D. The refresh token is not being used.
E. The bot owner regenerated the access token on developer.webex.com.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://developer.authorize.net/api/reference/features/webhooks.html 

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the code to complete the JavaScript snippet so that it:
1.
retrieves the details of an individual user
2.
checks what licenses they have already
3.
updates their account with a new license Options can be used more than once.
Select and Place:

 

Correct Answer: 

QUESTION 3

 Refer to the exhibit. On line 4, the script retrieves a context from a DOM element that was generated from a server-side

component. How does that server-side component obtain the value for the `context\\' element?
A. by opening a dialog asking the end-user to paste his personal access token
B. by completing an authorization code grant flow using the identifier and secret of an OAuth integration
C. by embedding the access token of a Bot account
D. by creating a guest token using the identifier and secret of a Guest Issuer application
Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about using the Compliance Office role to manage data in Webex Teams are true? (Choose
two.)
A. For group rooms with members from multiple organizations, only the compliance officer of the owning organization
can manage all data.
B. The compliance officer can manage data only for users who have granted the spark-compliance messages scope.
C. For direct rooms between two organizations, each compliance officer can manage data only from their organization.
D. For group rooms with members from multiple organizations, either compliance offcer can manage all data.
E. For direct rooms between two organizations, the compliance officer of either organization can manage all data.
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://developer-portal-intb.ciscospark.com/docs/api/guides/compliance

QUESTION 5
Which list of API calls must be made to provision 50 new Webex Room devices for an organization?
A. POST to /places with `displayName\\', POST the returned `placeId\\' to /devices/
B. POST `displayName\\' to /places, POST the returned `placeId\\' to /devices/activationCode
C. POST to /licenses, POST the returned `licneseId\\' and a specified `displayName\\' to /devices
D. POST to /licenses, POST `displayName\\' to /places, POST `licensed\\' and placeId\\' to /devices
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/devices/list-devices

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Cisco Certified DevNet Professional 300-915

300-915 DEVIOT
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/deviot-300-915.html
Certifications: Cisco Certified DevNet Professional, Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist - IoT
Duration: 90 minutes
Available languages: English

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QUESTION 1
Which command is used to package a Docker-style Cisco IOx app using ioxclient?
A. ioxclient docker create helloworld:1.0.
B. ioxclient docker-app helloworld:1.0.
C. ioxclient docker package helloworld:1.0.
D. ioxclient docker helloworld:1.0.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
As part of an IoT project, an organization is developing an edge application that will run on a gateway to securely
transmit sensor information it receives into an IoT cloud. Based on the Agile software development lifecycle, the
development team is planning to implement a CI/CD pipeline.
Which two methods should be suggested to make the software development lifecycle more secure during the
implementation and testing? (Choose two.)
A. Perform automated code reviews prior to deployment.
B. Implement auto-provisioning security inspection for the code.
C. Perform on-going penetration testing on the system.
D. Perform a GAP analysis on current security activities and policies.
E. Train members of the team in a secure software development lifecycle methodology such as OWASP.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
An IoT application has been built into the application CI/CD pipeline. The application needs credentials to access other
applications, APIs, and cloud resources.
When should the credentials be inserted into the application using the CI/CD process?
A. hard coded into your application code base
B. during application runtime
C. after application testing
D. during application build time
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two actions must be completed before starting the process of sending IoT data to the cloud via edge routers?
(Choose two.)
A. Measure the voltage, power rating, and quiescent current for the sensors that send data to the cloud.
B. Gather the hardware (MAC) addresses of local and cloud routers to ensure low latency communication.
C. Collect information about the CPU architecture in the cloud and edge to ensure that they match.
D. Gather the interval, the volume, and the latency that the data must be provisioned with.
E. Collect information about growth, required elasticity, and high availability of the provisioning process.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
When constructing a Python script for data extraction using GMM APIs on a Cisco Kinetic Cloud platform, how should
the API authentication be implemented?
A. Generate the API keys once and edit the permissions as needed.
B. Generate and use the API keys for the required access level from the Kinetic Cloud application.
C. Use a complex username and password with 128-bit encryption.
D. Use a complex username with an auto-generated password from the Kinetic Cloud application.
Correct Answer: B 

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Cisco Certified DevNet Professional 300-910 Exam Questions

QUESTION 1
Which action should the system administrator take to start looking for the cause of this issue?
A. Check to make sure Nginx is running.
B. Check for response times in Nginx logs.
C. Check to make sure the web API response is coming back in JSON.
D. Check the size of the database that the application is using.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An interface on a router as a Layer 3 link has been configured to another device by updating an Ansible playbook that is
executed via a CI/CD pipeline. The Ansible playbook was written to push the configuration change using the ios_config
module.
Which automated test validates that the interface is functioning as it should?
A. Add a pipeline step that runs the playbook a second type. If it does not modify the device on the second run, then the
interface is correctly configured.
B. Automated testing is already built in because the playbook execution is successful only after Ansible validates that it
applied the change.
C. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the packet flow for the interface.
D. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the show ip interface output so that the operational state can be
referenced.
Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 3

Which description of a canary deployment is true?

A. deployment by accident

B. deployment that is rolled back automatically after a configurable amount of minutes

C. deployment relating to data mining development

D. deployment to a limited set of servers or users

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
FILL BLANK Fill in the blanks to describe the concepts of extending DevOps practices to the network for NetDevOps.
NetDevOps builds and manages networks as a system that enables network services to be consumed in a DevOps
approach. Organizations practicing NetDevOps see changes in the _________ as routine and expected activities, with a
welldefined and practiced process for _________ , testing, and __________ network changes. By making them routine,
network changes can be small and simple.
Correct Answer: network, designing, deploying
Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/developer/embrace-netdevops-part-1 

QUESTION 5
When DevOps practices are integrated into an existing organization, which two characteristics are positive indicators of
DevOps maturity? (Choose two.)
A. mean time between success
B. mean time to recover
C. cone testing
D. change lead time
E. age of codebase
Correct Answer: BD

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Cisco Certified DevNet Professional 350-901 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

Which two situations are flagged by software tools designed for dependency checking in continuous integration

environments, such as OWASP? (Choose two.)

A. publicly disclosed vulnerabilities related to the included dependencies

B. mismatches in coding styles and conventions in the included dependencies

C. incompatible licenses in the included dependencies

D. test case failures introduced by bugs in the included dependencies

E. buffer overflows to occur as the result of a combination of the included dependencies

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 2

Which HTTP status code indicates that a client application is experiencing intentional rate limiting by the server?

A. 202

B. 401

C. 429

D. 503

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Which two techniques protect against injection attacks? (Choose two.)

A. input validation

B. trim whitespace

C. limit text areas to 255 characters

D. string escaping of user free text and data entry

E. only use dropdown, checkbox, and radio button fields

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4

A web application is susceptible to cross-site scripting. Which two methods allow this issue to be mitigated? (Choose

two.)

A. Use only drop downs.

B. Limit user input to acceptable characters.

C. Encrypt user input on the client side.

D. Use AES encryption to secure the script.

E. Remove all HTML/XML tags from user input.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5Which RFC5988 (Web Linking) relation type is used in the Link header to control pagination in APIs?
A. rel="index"
B. rel="page"
C. rel="next"
D. rel="section"
Correct Answer: C 

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Cisco 300-510 Exam topics

• Routing protocols
• Policy language
• MPLS
• Segment routing

100% Real Exam Questions | Cisco 300-510 Exam Practice

QUESTION 1
Which output from the show isis interface command helps an engineer troubleshoot an IS-IS adjacency problem on a
Cisco IOS-XR platform?
A. metric
B. priority
C. circuit type
D. hello interval
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Referring to the topology diagram show in the exhibit, which three statements are correct regarding the BGP routing

updates? (Choose three.) 

A. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2, R4, and R7 routers 

B. The EBGP routing updates received by R3 from R6 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers

C. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers

D. The IBGP routing updates received by R3 from R2 will be propagated to the R6 router

E. The IBGP routing updates received by R2 from R1 will be propagated to the R3 router

F. The IBGP routing updates received by R1 from R4 will be propagated to the R5, R7, and R2 routers

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3 

Refer to the exhibit. CE1 is the gateway router into the provider network via PE1. A network operator must inject a
default route into OSPF area 0. All devices inside area 0 must be able to reach PE1. Which configuration achieves this
goal?

 A. Option A

B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/47868-ospfdb9.html 

QUESTION 4

Which two characteristics unique to SSM when compared to ASM are true? (Choose two.)

A. It uses SPT switchover

B. It uses (*,G) exclusively

C. It uses IGMPv3

D. It uses RP

E. It uses (S,G) exclusively

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPF multiarea. Which Cisco IOS XR feature should the engineer use in order to
streamline OSPF issue?
A. hierarchical CLI
B. DR support for topology management
C. routing process enabled by default on all interfaces
D. show ip ospf topology command
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/xr12000/software/xr12k_r4-0/routing/configuration/guide/rc40xr12k_chapter4.html#con_1059437  、

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300-635 Dumps PDF

    Total Questions:60
    Updated on:Jun 04, 2020
    Format:PDF Version

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Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-635  Q&A

QUESTION 1
Which two items are types of application isolation options available when Kubernetes is deployed with the ACI CNI plugin? (Choose two.)
A. VM Isolation
B. Cluster Isolation
C. Server Isolation
D. Process Isolation
E. Namespace Isolation
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2 

Which Python snippets create an application policy named OrderProcess that contains two application endpoint groups
under Tenant SuperEats using direct calls to the ACI REST API? Assume that authentication and library imports are
correct.

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 3
Which two components are required from the Cisco Intersight REST API Authentication? (Choose two.)
A. SHA256 hash of the message body and message headers.
B. SHA256 hash of the message body, including empty message bodies.
C. RSA private key with a key size of 2048.
D. RSA private key with a key size of 1024.
E. SHA384 hash of the message body, excluding empty message bodies.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which programming language are the Cisco UCS Director custom workflow tasks written in?
A. C++
B. Python
C. Java
D. Cloupia Script
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

How should the Kubernetes manifests be modified to allow Kubernetes environment integration with Cisco ACI?

A. The metadata section must contain the Cisco APIC management IP.

B. The manifest does not have to be changed, but the Kubernetes object is not discovered by Cisco ACI if this is not

defined in the manifest.

C. The manifests must include ACI EPG reference.

D. No change is needed to perform this action.

Correct Answer: D

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Implementing Cisco Storage Area Networking (300-625 DCSAN)

Description
tests your knowledge of Cisco MDS 9000 series switches
300-625 DCSAN
Certifications: CCNP Data Center, Cisco Certified Specialist - Data Center SAN Implementation

Duration: 90 minutes

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dcsan-300-625.html

Cisco CCNP Data Center Exam (300-625 DCSAN) Questions 

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Cisco 300-625 DCSAN free practice test 1-5

QUESTION 1DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the mechanisms of Cisco Secure Boot from the left into the correct order on the right.
Select and Place: 

Correct Answer: 

QUESTION 2

A storage network engineer must install and configure a new MDS switch in a data center network. Which two

statements about available choices during the MDS switch initial setup are correct? (Choose two.)

A. The engineer can choose what will be the administrator account.

B. The secure password standard is required.

C. The engineer can configure the default zone policy.

D. The engineer can configure the default switch port trunk mode.

E. The engineer does not have the choice to enable or disable full zoneset distribution.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3What is the function of the 0xFFFFFC address in a Fibre Channel fabric?
A. management server
B. fabric controller
C. name server
D. time server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4Refer to the exhibit.

A port channel has been configured between a Cisco MDS and a Cisco Fabric Interconnect switch. Which interface(s) in

the port channel carry the control plane traffic?

A. per packet, balanced between interfaces fc1/9 and fc1/10

B. from interface fc1/9

C. from interface fc1/10

D. per flow, balanced between interfaces fc1/9 and fc1/10

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5Which feature on MDS platforms ensures that the code that is running on the hardware platform is authentic and
unmodified, while also validating the BIOS to eliminate any rootkits.
A. Cisco Secure Boot
B. UEFI Secure Boot
C. Secure Unique Device Identifier
D. BIOS Secure Boot
Correct Answer: A  

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2020 Latest Release Cisco 300-620 Test Questions, Cisco 300-620 Pdf

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Latest Cisco 300-620 dumps practice exam questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1
An engineer is implementing a connection that represents an external bridged network. Which two configurations are
used? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 remote fabric
B. Layer 2 outside
C. Layers 2 internal
D. Static path binding
E. VXLAN outside
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
A data center administrator is upgrading an ACI fabric. There are 3 APIC controllers in the fabric and all the servers are
dual-homed to pairs of leaf switches configured in VPC mode. How should the fabric be upgraded to minimize possible
traffic impact during the upgrade?
A. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the APIC controllers: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the first group of controllers.
3.
Upgrade the second group of controllers.
4.
Upgrade the leaf switches.
B. 1. Create two maintenance groups for APIC controllers: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the leaf switches.
3.
Upgrade the first group of controllers.
4.
Upgrade the second group of controllers.
C. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the leaf switches: VPC left and VPC right.
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2.
Upgrade the APIC controllers.
3.
Upgrade the first group of leaf switches.
4.
Upgrade the second group of leaf switches.
D. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the leaf switches: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the first group of switches.
3.
Upgrade the second group of switches.
4.
Upgrade the APIC controllers.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. Which two objects are created as a result of the configuration? (Choose two.)

A. application profile

B. attachable AEP

C. bridge domain

D. endpoint group

E. VRF

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01110.html

QUESTION 4 

Refer to the exhibit. Which Adjacency Type value should be set when the client endpoint and the service node interface
are in a different subnet?
A. Routed
B. Unicast
C. L3Out
D. L3
Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 5An engineer has set the VMM resolution immediacy to pre-provision in a Cisco ACI environment. No Cisco Discovery
Protocol neighborship has been formed between the hypervisors and the ACI fabric leaf nodes. How does this affect the
download policies to the leaf switches?
A. No policies are downloaded because LLDP is the only supported discovery protocol.
B. Policies are downloaded when the hypervisor host is connected to the VMM VDS.
C. Policies are downloaded to the ACI leaf switch regardless of Cisco Discovery Protocol neighborship.
D. No policies are downloaded because there is no discovery protocol neighborship.
Correct Answer: C

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Pass Cisco 300-615 exam - questions 1-5

QUESTION 1

Your client reports that many flaps and server cluster disconnects occur in their data center. While troubleshooting the
issue, you discover a network attack hitting their Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches and determine that the source IP
addresses are spoofed. Which first-line security solution resolves this issue?
A. Dynamic ARP Inspection
B. Unicast RPF
C. IP Source Guard
D. Storm Control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2A server fails to boot from the operating system after a RAID1 cluster migration. The RAID remains in an inactive state
during and after a service profile association. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Configure the SAN boot target in the service profile.
B. Configure the SAN boot target to any configuration mode.
C. Use a predefined local disk configuration policy.
D. Remove the local disk configuration policy.
Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 3An upgrade of protected RPMs from the Bash shell did not take effect. Which action is required for the changes to take
effect?
A. Restart the Bash shell.
B. Reload the switch.
C. Upgrade the RPMs from the Guest shell.
D. Disable and reenable the Bash feature.
Correct Answer: D  

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit. The EEM script overrides all events in the system policy. What should be added to the script to
resolve the issue?
A. event statement
B. environment variable
C. event-default action statement
D. configure terminal action  

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5 

Refer to the exhibit. The VEMs fail to join a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch. You determine that a system VLAN must
be set on a system-uplink port profile. Which VLAN do you configure as a system VLAN?
A. 40
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
Correct Answer: B

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