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QUESTION: 39
Which two methods can you use to specify multiple files in the same source file format? (Choose two)
A. Create a file list .txt file
B. Specify a file Lookup table
C. Use wildcards(*.?)
D. Use a comma separated list of files
600-460 exam Answer: C,D

QUESTION: 40
What is the function of the Merge transform?
A. To apply a union all to the incoming data streams.
B. To apply an auto update to your target table
C. To append two column values together
D. To join incoming data sets based on a relationship
Answer: A

QUESTION: 41
What are three ways to view the push down SQL generated by a Data Flow? (Choose three)
A. Right –click on the Data Flow and select “Audit I Store push-down SQL”.
B. Right –click on the Data Flow and select “Display Optimized SQL”
C. Select “Display Optimized SQL” from the Validation menu.
D. Select “Trace SQL Readers” from the Trace options when executing a Job.
600-460 dumps Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION: 42
You are unfamiliar with the data in your customer dimension table. You decide to run column profile on the table. Which three insights will you gain from reviewing
the column profile results? (Choose three)
A. Columns that contain only null data
B. Count of distinct values in a column
C. Distinct values in a column
D. SUM of the numeric column values
Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION: 43
What are the two required steps to make a database table available in a Data Flow? (Choose two)
A. Add connection details to Data Flow properties
B. Create a datastore
C. Import table metadata
D. Profile database table
600-460 pdf Answer: B,C

QUESTION: 44
Multiple developers are working on different projects and you want to configure a single Central Object Library. Which two requirements warrant using a Secured Central Object Library? (Choose two)
A. Restrict groups of developers from accessing specific objects
B. Restrict groups of developers from deleting specific objects
C. Restrict groups of developers from adding specific objects
D. Restrict groups of developers from viewing the history of specific objects
Answer: A,B

QUESTION: 45
You are executing a Job in Recovery mode and the Job fails having partially loaded the Target Table. You rerun the Job by selecting “Recover from last failed execution”
A. The objects completed prior to the failed Data Flow are skipped and the failed Data Flow is rerun from the beginning
B. The objects completed prior to the failed Data Flow are skipped and the failed Data Flow continues from the point of failure
C. The objects completed prior to and including the failed Data Flow are re-run in Auto-correct mode
D. The transaction si rolled back and the Job re-executes from the beginning
600-460 vce Answer: A

QUESTION: 46
You have two structurally equivalent data sets which you want to append into a single target. How would you connect the input data sets?
A. Into a single target table
B. Map_Operation transform
C. Merge transform
D. Query transform
Answer: C

QUESTION: 47
How do you commit all rows in a single transaction?
A. Select “Commit at the end of Insert… Select”
B. Select “Include in transaction” in the target table options
C. Specify “Rows per commit” equal to zero
D. Specify the “Number of loaders” equal to one.
600-460 exam Answer: B

QUESTION: 48
Which lookup caching method reduces system memory usage?
A. Demand_Load_Cache
B. No_Cache
C. Pre_Load_Cache
D. Smart_Cache
Answer: B

QUESTION: 49
Which two objects can be used in a Data Flow? (Choose two)
A. Conditional
B. Template Table
C. Work Flow
D. XML Schema
600-460 dumps Answer: B,D

QUESTION: 50
You want to split your data set into three separate tables based on the region_id field.Which two methods will accomplish the desired result? (Choose two)
A. Use the Case transform and specify three expressions based on the region_id value.
B. Use three Query transforms each containing a different WHERE clause based on the region_id value.
C. Use the Vaildation transform and specify a validation rule based on the region_id value
D. Use the Map_Operation transform and specify a mapping filter based on the region _id value.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION: 51
Which two operations can Data Integrator push down to the underlying database? (Choose two)
A. Custom Function
B. Filtering
C. Join
D. Key Generation
600-460 pdf Answer: B,C

QUESTION: 52
You are running a Job in Debug mode, How long is the captured data persisted?
A. Permanently stored in the Job Server Logs
B. Until the Job is re-executed
C. While the Debug is active
D. While the Data Flow is active in the workspace
Answer: C

QUESTION: 53
Your source table contains sales data for multiple countries. You need to calculatesales tax differently for each specific country. The sales tax for some countriesrequires multiple steps to calculate. What is the recommended method you shoulduse?
A. Use a Case transform to separate the countries, then apply the Sales Tax Calculation Using Query transforms.
B. Use a Validation transform to create the sales tax calculations
C. Use a Query transform and the Decode ( ) function to apply the sales tax calculations
D. Use the SQL transform and specify the sales tax calculation in the SQL statement.
600-460 vce Answer: A

QUESTION: 54
Under which two circumstances must you select “Use Input Keys” when updating a Target Table? (Choose two)
A. No primary key is specified on the target table
B. No primary key is specified on the source table
C. To optimize the pushdown SQL
D. To specify an alternative key for the update
Answer: A,D

QUESTION: 55
Which two tasks can you perform using Data Integrator Designer? (Choose two)
A. Create Auto Documentation
B. Launch Data Integrator Jobs
C. Iplort Metadata
D. Schedule Data Integrator Jobs
600-460 exam Answer: B,C

QUESTION: 56
Which three elements can be contained in the output schema of a query? (Choose three)
A. Columns
B. Filters
C. Functions
D. Group By
E. Order By
F. Nested Schemas
Answer: A,C,F

QUESTION: 57
Which three expressions convert a null value to 0? (Choose three)
A. Case (field is NULL, 0, field)
B. Decode (field is NULL, 0, field)
C. If then else (field is NULL,0,field)
D. Nvl (field,0)
600-460 dumps Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION: 58
What are the three possible row operation codes for input to the History_Preserving transform? (Choose three)
A. Delete
B. Discard
C. Insert
D. Normal
E. Update
Answer: A,C,E

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QUESTION: 85
On which server must you install .NET framework when using the .NET architecture in BusinessObjects Enterprise?
A. Central Management Server (CMS)
B. Report Application Server (RAS)
C. IIS Web Application Server
D. Apache Tomcat Server
500-005 exam Answer: C

QUESTION: 86
A BusinessObjects Enterprise user with the appropriate rights asks to view a Web Intelligence document on demand. When the Web Intelligence Report Server has finished
processing the report, it sends the report to which of the following BusinessObjects Enterprise servers?
A. Crystal Reports Cache Server
B. Output File Repository Server (FRS)
C. The Web Application Server (WAS)
D. Web Intelligence Job Server
Answer: C

QUESTION: 87
You are configuring the value for Maximum Jobs Allowed on the Crystal Reports Job Server. Which three factors should you consider? (Choose three.)
A. Number of processors dedicated to Crystal Reports Job Server processing
B. Number of scheduled reports that must be processed
C. Time window in which scheduled reports must be processed
D. Number of concurrent users on the system
500-005 dumps Answer: A, B, C

QUESTION: 88
You want to configure the Input File Repository Server’s root directory to be located on a
remote server. What step must you perform in order to support this configuration?
A. Increase the Max Idle Time setting
B. Set the Use UNC Location property to true
C. Set the Use Mapped Network Drive property to true
D. Start the service with a domain account with access to remote location
Answer: D

QUESTION: 89
What is an advantage of configuring the Crystal Reports Page Server service to run under a domain network account rather than the default Local System account?
A. Provides the service access to the network printer driver for report rendering
B. Enables access to an Input and Output File Repository Server (FRS) that is installed on a different system
C. Provides the service access to a Central Management Server that is installed on a different system
D. Enables the services to start automatically when the system boots
500-005 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION: 90
A report designer creates a Crystal Report on their desktop computer that uses Native Drivers to connect to the corporate data in Oracle. The report works perfectly on the
designer’s machine. You publish the report to BusinessObjects Enterprise using the Central Management Console. When you test the report using Crystal Reports on the server running the Crystal Reports Page Server and Crystal Reports Job Server, the report works perfectly. When the report is scheduled, the instance fails. Which two statements describe a possible cause?(Choose two.)
A. The report has 2 parameters and the values were not set when scheduling.
B. The database client software was not installed on the Crystal Report Job Server.
C. The database login credentials were not specified during the scheduling.
D. There is no DSN on the Crystal Reports Job Server to match the DSN in the report.
Answer: A, C

QUESTION: 91
Which two actions does BusinessObjects Enterprise take when an instance is removed from the system? (Choose two.)
A. Deletes the instance file from the Output File Repository Server
B. Deletes the record of the instance from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C. Keeps the instance file in the Output File Repository Server
D. Keeps a record of the instance in the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
500-005 vce Answer: A, B

QUESTION: 92
Which two statements are true regarding user access rights to a given object in BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A. Explicitly denied user access overrides all accumulated rights.
B. Objects inherit security from parent folders.
C. Global rights override all other rights.
D. Users inherit rights from the default group to which they belong.
Answer: A, B

QUESTION: 93
Which three Business Objects Enterprise servers interact directly with the databases that contain report data? (Choose three.)
A. Desktop Intelligence Job Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Crystal Reports Page Server
D. Web Intelligence Job Server
Answer: A, B, C

QUESTION: 94
Where does the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure store a successful Web Intelligence document instance?
A. The Output File Repository Server (FRS)
B. The Web Intelligence Report Server
C. The Web Intelligence Job Server
D. The Output Application Server (OAS)
500-005 exam Answer: A

QUESTION: 95
Which statement describes how corporate categories operate as a component of a content and management plan for your BusinessObjects Enterprise system?
A. Categories must be set up to reflect each user's personal requirements.
B. Copies of objects must be added to each category where they are included.
C. Users have rights to access each object in a category based on its actual folder location.
D. Access rights to objects in categories must be set for each user.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 96
What options do users have for viewing reports in the Central Management Console (CMC)?
A. They can choose any viewer that is available in the CMC preferences.
B. They can view reports only with the CMC viewer.
C. They cannot view reports in the CMC, only administer the content.
D. They can view reports only with the DHTML viewers.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 97
Which steps should you follow in the Central Management Console (CMC) in order to create a new Profile that will enable you to use a Publication to distribute personalized
information to each of your store managers? (Select the best option.)
A. Select the Publication object, click on the Schedule tab, then on Profiles and click Add.
B. Select the Publication object, click on the Source tab, then on Profiles and click Add.
C. Select the Publication object, click on the Profiles tab and click New Profile.
D. Select the Profiles object, click New Profile.
500-005 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION: 98
Tasha belongs to the Sales Support group. This group was explicitly denied the View Object right on the Sales folder. Tasha needs to view objects in the Reports sub-folder of the Sales folder. What change should you make?
A. Change the Sales Support group's access rights on the Sales folder to View.
B. Change Tasha's access rights to View.
C. Explicitly grant Full Control to Tasha.
D. Explicitly grant the View Object right to the Sales Support group which disables
inheritance.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 99
Select two true statements about Scheduling Publications from below. (Choose two.)
A. You can schedule Publication that contains both Desktop Intelligence and Web Intelligence documents.
B. You cannot schedule Publication on a recurring basis.
C. You can test Publication before scheduling.
D. Scheduling Publications is an example of single-pass refresh bursting as oppose to multipass report bursting.
500-005 pdf Answer: C, D

QUESTION: 100
You want department administrators to perform some basic administrative tasks that require them to be able to access the Central Management Console (CMC). How will you give the department administrators the right to be able to grant access to the CMC to other administrators in their own departments?
A. In the Organize Objects area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to "Edit this object".
B. In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to "Full control".
C. In the Manage Settings area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to "Modify the rights users have to this
object".
D. In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to "Modify the rights users have to this object".
Answer: D

QUESTION: 101
A user who has always scheduled objects for the Marketing department is leaving your company. Which method should you use in the Central Management Console (CMC) to ensure that all recurring instances owned by this user remain in effect but become owned by the Administrator?
A. Disable the departing user then click on the Transfer recurring instances to button and select the Administrator. Click OK.
B. Delete the departing user; all recurring instances automatically transfer to the Administrator.
C. Open each recurring instance on the object's History tab then click on Schedule for and select Administrator. Ensure that the instance will use the same recurrence pattern and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
D. Download details of all the instances then log on to the CMC as Administrator and schedule them using the same recurrence patterns and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
500-005 vce Answer: B

QUESTION: 102
Which statement describes the role of BusinessObjects Enterprise within the Business Objects Business Intelligence (BI) suite of products?
A. Allows you to analyze and interact with data from both relational and OLAP data sources.
B. Provides you with an open, scalable platform that supports all of your BI tools and applications.
C. Provides you with a process for accessing data, formatting it and delivering it as information to various users.
D. Allows you to integrate, transform and deliver enterprise data from any source.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 103
Select two true statements from below. (Choose two.)
A. You cannot copy Calendar objects in CMC > Calendars area of administration.
B. You can create your own Calendars in BusinessObjects Enterprise; you have to use the pre-build business calendars only.
C. You can schedule Web Intelligence documents based on an existing calendar.
D. Calendars can be created in InfoView.
500-005 exam Answer: B, C

QUESTION: 104
What steps should you follow to make Report A run automatically every day upon the successful completion of Report B?
A. Working in InfoView, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on
completion window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule based event to the Events to wait for window.
B. Working in the Central Management Console, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule based event to the Events to wait for window.
C. Working in the Central Management Console, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for
window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
D. Working in InfoView, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 105
The InfoView is mostly used for which of the following tasks:
A. Mostly for administering content
B. Exclusively for viewing reports
C. Viewing information about reports (Encyclopedia and Discussions)
D. Accessing information and some limited content administration
500-005 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION: 106
Once you grant the right to an application value (e.g. Print Documents set to Grant) to a user/group on a specific application (e.g. Desktop Intelligence), you will still be able to grant that right (e.g. print) to one Desktop Intelligence document but not the other Desktop Intelligence document.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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QUESTION: 60
You want to use the Import Wizard to import objects from a test environment into your production environment. Which two settings must you select in order maintain the rights
associated with the imported objects? (Choose two.)
A. Import users
B. Retain security
C. Enforce global security
D. Import user groups
400-201 exam Answer: A, D

QUESTION: 61
To confirm that your BusinessObjects Enterprise system is installed and configured properly, you can perform a number of tests. Select all that apply. (Choose three.)
A. Confirm you can create a new Crystal Report using the Standard Report Wizard.
B. Open the BusinessObjects Enterprise Administration Launchpad (Java or .NET depending upon your Web Application Server) and log into InfoView.
C. Log into the Central Management Server from the Central Management Console.
D. Schedule a Crystal Report and view the resulting instance.
Answer: B, C, D

QUESTION: 62
Which three services are for schedule processing? (Choose three.)
A. Event Server
B. Program Job Server
C. Desktop Intelligence Job Server
D. Web Intelligence Report Server
400-201 dumps Answer: B, C, D

QUESTION: 63
Which two BusinessObjects Enterprise servers can be restarted using the Central Management Console?
A. Web Component Adapter
B. Web Intelligence Report Server
C. Web Intelligence Job Server
D. Central Management Server (CMS)
Answer: B, C

QUESTION: 64
While using the Import Wizard, which three options become available to you after you select “Enforce rights fidelity”? (Choose three.)
A. “No, don’t migrate security”
B. “Import object security”
C. “I want to merge the source system into the destination system”
D. “Import folder security”
400-201 pdf Answer: A, B, D

QUESTION: 65
Which task is the List of Values (LOV) Job Server responsible for?
A. Running scheduled LOV objects
B. Creating the report object required to hold the LOV
C. Creating dynamic cascading parameters
D. Creating the Business View that contains the data source for the LOV
Answer: A

QUESTION: 66
Which two events can be audited on the Crystal Reports Cache Server? (Choose two.)
A. A cached page has expired.
B. A report has been viewed successfully.
C. A report could not be viewed.
D. An idle connection has been closed.
400-201 vce Answer: B, C

QUESTION: 67
How often does the Central Management Server broadcast its system time by default?
A. Every 5 minutes
B. Every 10 minutes
C. Every 30 minutes
D. Every 60 minutes
Answer: D

QUESTION: 68
Which three tasks should you perform when troubleshooting your BusinessObjects Enterprise system? (Choose three.)
A. Disable all BusinessObjects Enterprise services
B. Ensure client machines are running supported operating systems
C. Ensure server machines are running supported operating systems
D. Collect error messages and check them against the Knowledge Base
400-201 exam Answer: B, C, D

QUESTION: 69
When you schedule a report, you are able to choose records for any country, but when you run the report on demand only records for Canada appear in the instance. Which statement describes the cause?
A. The Business View has a filter for the group to which you belong.
B. The report designer hard coded the value of Canada for the Country.
C. The Crystal Reports Page Server has not flushed the List of Values (LOV) cache.
D. The country parameter in the report has a default value of Canada.
Answer: D

QUESTION: 70
Which configuration change should you make to improve system performance when real time caching is enabled for the Web Intelligence Report Server?
A. Set the Web Intelligence Report Server parameter Enable Data Caching to true.
B. Set the Web Intelligence Report Server parameter Enable Cache-By-Name Access to true.
C. Set the Web Intelligence Cache Server parameters Cache Block Size and Cache Block Timeout to Automatic.
D. Set the Web Intelligence Report Server parameter Maximum Number of Downloaded Documents to Cache to zero.
400-201 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION: 71
Which two settings are available for both the Crystal Reports Cache Server and Crystal Reports Page Server? (Choose two.)
A. Oldest On-Demand Data Given to a Client
B. Viewer Refresh Always Yields Current Data
C. Maximum Simultaneous Processing Threads
D. Minutes Before an Idle Report Job is Closed
Answer: A, B

QUESTION: 72
Which three settings can you configure for the Crystal Reports Job Server Inbox destination?(Choose three)
A. Send a Copy of the instance
B. Destination File type
C. Send a Shortcut to the instance
D. Groups to Send the instance to
400-201 pdf Answer: A, C, D

QUESTION: 73
Which two configuration tasks can you perform on a newly created server group? (Choose two.)
A. Associate specific report objects with a server group so that processing is always done by the same servers for that object.
B. Associate specific folder with a server group so that processing is always done by the same servers for all report objects in that folder.
C. Change the Central Management Server (CMS) cluster status.
D. Change the server status for all servers in the server group at one time.
Answer: A, D

QUESTION: 74
What type of objects does the Input File Repository Server store? (Choose two.)
A. Instances
B. Business Views
C. Reports
D. List of Values
400-201 vce Answer: C, D

QUESTION: 75
When a scheduled Web Intelligence document runs successfully, which BusinessObjects Enterprise server notifies the Central Management Server (CMS) that the instance has been
successful?
A. Web Intelligence Cache Server
B. Web Intelligence Job Server
C. Web Intelligence Report Server
D. Web Application Server (WAS)
Answer: B

QUESTION: 76
You attempt to login to the Central Management Console and receive the following error message: “Unable to retrieve cluster members.” You confirm that you have network connectivity with the Central Management Server (CMS) host, but discover that there is no CMS running at port 6400. What is the cause?
A. The Tomcat Web Application Server (WAS) is stopped.
B. The ODBC DSN that points to the system database was deleted.
C. The Web Connector is improperly configured on the Web Server.
D. The Primary CMS in the cluster has stopped.
400-201 exam Answer: B

QUESTION: 77
Which three jobs does the Central Management Server perform? (Choose three.)
A. Maintains a list of servers and IP addresses
B. Manages files during File Events
C. Manages files during Schedule Events
D. Manages auditing
Answer: A, C, D

QUESTION: 78
Which three events does the BusinessObjects Enterprise system monitor? (Choose three.)
A. Calendar Events
B. Custom Events
C. File Events
D. Schedule Events
400-201 dumps Answer: B, C, D

QUESTION: 79
You have configured your BusinessObjects Enterprise system to have multiple Input and Output File Repository Servers (FRS). How do you determine which are the active File
Repository Servers?
A. The active File Repository Servers were the first ones installed in the initial BusinessObjects Enterprise deployment.
B. The active File Repository Servers are the ones that were first to register with the Central Management Server.
C. The active File Repository Servers are the ones that have the active switch set in their command lines.
D. The active File Repository Servers change depending on the location of the reporting database.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 80
Which BusinessObjects Enterprise tool enables you to schedule a List of Values (LOV) object?
A. Central Management Console
B. InfoView
C. Crystal Reports
D. Business View Manager
400-201 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION: 81
Which two components must you install on a Java Web Application Server if you wish to use the BusinessObjects Enterprise Java InfoView and the Central Management Console? (Choose two.)
A. ODBC drivers
B. BusinessObjects Enterprise Java SDK
C. Web Component Adapter
D. MySQuestionL drivers
Answer: B, C

QUESTION: 82
Which two statements describe the role of Report Application Server? (Choose two.)
A. Provides Crystal Report design and modification capabilities over the web
B. Archives all report instances run on the BusinessObjects Enterprise system
C. Processes on demand Crystal Reports for users using the Java or ActiveX viewers
D. Processes on demand Crystal Reports for users using the Advanced DHTML viewer
400-201 vce Answer: A, D

QUESTION: 83
Which setting for the Crystal Reports Page Server should you modify to ensure that when users explicitly refresh a report, all previously processed data is ignored and new data is retrieved directly from the database?
A. Refresh Interval
B. Refresh Data if Needed
C. Share Report Data Between Clients
D. Viewer Refresh Always Yields Current Data
Answer: D

QUESTION: 84
You observe that the amount of memory that the fcproc.exe process uses increases over. Which Desktop Intelligence Report Server parameter modification should you make?
A. Lower“Number of preloaded report jobs”
B. Raise“Number of preloaded report jobs”
C. Raise“Maximum simultaneous report jobs”
D. Lower“Maximum operations before resetting a report job”
400-201 exam Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 28
Review the following truncated output from an Aruba controller for this item.(Example) #show rights logon
Derived Role = 'logon'
Up BW:No Limit Down BW:No Limit
L2TP Pool = default-l2tp-pool
PPTP Pool = default-pptp-pool
Periodic reauthentication: Disabled
ACL Number = 1/0
Max Sessions = 65535
Based on the above output from an Aruba controller, an unauthenticated user assigned to the logon role attempts to start an http session to IP address 172.16.43.170. What will happen?
A. the user's traffic will be passed to the IP address because of the policy statement: user any svc-http dst-nat 8080
B. the user's traffic will be passed to the IP address because of the policy statement: user any svc-https dst-nat 8081
C. the user's traffic will be passed to the IP address because of the policy statement: user any svc-http-proxy1 dst-nat 8088
D. the user will not reach the IP address because of the policy statement: user any svc-http dst-nat 8080
E. the user will not reach the IP address because of the implicit deny any any at the end of the policy.
400-151 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 29
Refer to the following configuration segment for this item. ip access-list session anewone user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit user host 10.1.1.1 any deny user any any permit Based on the above Aruba Mobility Controller configuration segment, which statements best describe this policy? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. The rule user host 10.1.1.1 any deny is redundant because of the implicit deny all at the end.
B. The rule user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit is redundant because of the user any any permit at the end.
C. The two rules user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit and user host 10.1.1.1 any deny need to be re-sequenced.
D. This list is fine as is.
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 30
Refer to the following configuration segment for this item.
netdestination "internal"
no invert
network 172.16.43.0 255.255.255.0 position 1
range 172.16.11.0 172.16.11.16 position 2
!
ip access-list session "My-Policy"
alias "user" alias "internal" service_any permit queue low
!
A user frame is evaluated against this access-list with the following attributes:
Source IP: 172.17.49.3 Destination IP: 10.100.86.37 Destination Port: 80 Referring to the above file segment, how will the frame be handled by this access-list?
A. The frame will be dropped because of the implicit deny all at the end of the netdestination definition.
B. The frame will be dropped because of the implicit deny all at the end of the access list.
C. The frame will be forwarded because of the implicit permit all at the end of the access list.
D. The frame will be passed because there is no service specified in the access list.
E. The frame will be dropped because there is no service specified in the access list.
400-151 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 31
ip access-list session anewone
user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit
user any any permit
host 10.1.1.1 host 10.2.2.2 any deny
Source IP: 10.1.1.1 Destination IP: 10.2.2.2 Destination Port: 25
Based on the above Mobility Controller configuration file segment, what will this policy do with the user frame?
A. The frame is discarded because of the implicit deny all at the end of the policy.
B. The frame is discarded because of the statement: user host 10.1.1.1 host 10.2.2.2 deny.
C. The frame is accepted because of the statement: user any any permit.
D. The frame is accepted because of the statement: user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit.
E. This is not a valid policy.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
ip access-list session anewone
user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit
user host 10.1.1.1 any deny
user any any permit
Referring to the above portion of a Mobility Controller configuration file, what can you conclude?(Choose all of the correct answers.)
A. This is a session firewall policy.
B. This is an extended Access Control List (ACL).
C. Any traffic going to destination 10.1.1.1 will be denied.
D. Any traffic going to destination 10.2.2.2 will be denied.
E. Any traffic going to destination 172.16.100.100 will be permitted.
400-151 pdf Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 33
As a user moves through the authentication process, which of the following is not used in a derivation rule?
A. MAC address
B. OS version
C. SSID
D. Radius attribute
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
Other than a user role, what attribute can be applied to a user with a derivation rule?
A. SSID
B. MAC
C. VLAN
D. IP Address
400-151 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
Which is an Aruba specific DSA that can be used in a user derivation rule?
A. user login name
B. authentication server
C. location
D. controller Loopback address
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new CoS
400-151 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 37
Which four are characteristics or requirements for NBX Bridge Station Appearance (BSA) assuming only 3102 business phones are used in the customer location? (Choose four.)
A. Maps a primary phone to a secondary phone
B. Only need to configure the primary phone settings
C. Up to 16 extensions can be mapped to a common secondary phone
D. To configure BSA settings select Device Configuration / Telephones then select Button Mappings
E. Either phone can Answer a call, as incoming primary-phone calls appear on primary and secondary phone
F. Incoming calls to primary phone are automatically transferred to secondary phone based on time-of-day settings
Answer: ACDE
QUESTION NO: 38
Which four Call Forward user settings are available to a user logged into NetSet on a NBX Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voicemail box
B. Forward calls to an e-mail inbox
C. Disconnect (no forwarding) calls
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Forward calls to an Automated Attendant
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose
400-151 dumps Answer: ACDE
QUESTION NO: 39
A manager at extension 3002 has asked you to setup a NBX Communication System to allow an assistant at extension 1010 to filter calls. You have decided the best way to do this is Bridged Station Appearance. You have already setup the primary phones button mappings. Which is the correct extension number to add to the secondary phone Bridged Extension Number Field?
A. 1010
B. 1010-2
C. 3002
D. 3002-2
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 40
Which two are features of an NBX Calling Group? (Choose two.)
A. Member phones ring simultaneously for incoming calls
B. Calling Groups are the same as NBX Key Mode configuration
C. Up to 100 Calling Groups can be configured on an NBX 100 system
D. NBX administrator can define "ring progression" for a Calling Group
E. Member login/logout password is defined by NBX administrator using NetSet
400-151 pdf Answer: AE
QUESTION NO: 41
Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
C. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
D. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not Answered at a phone
E. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end of the day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
F. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if they are logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls
Answer: ABD
QUESTION NO: 42 Which three best describe PRI QSIG? (Choose three.)
A. For use on PSTN only
B. Is a proprietary 3Com protocol
C. Designed for IP-PBX to TAPI Server
D. For use on private lines, leased lines or VPN only
E. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling for tie line support
F. Requires clocking (Master mode) by one end station (PBX)
400-151 vce Answer: DEF
QUESTION NO: 43 Which four are features of the NBX QSIG Basic Service support? (Choose four.)
A. Recommended for use on a PSTN public network
B. Passes Caller ID information across QSIG tie lines
C. NBX system only functions in Slave Mode operation
D. Used to nest traditional PBX systems behind an NBX
E. Supports fractional QSIG on the NBX Digital Line Cards
F. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling, useful for implementing tie trunks
G. Connects 3rd party PBX systems with Master Mode support to an NBX system
Answer: BCFG
QUESTION NO: 44 The NBX Dial Plan supports Direct Inward Dialing/Dialed Number Identification Service (DID/DNIS).
A. True
B. False
400-151 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 45 How does the NBX administrator load a local country Dial Plan, for example, Norway or Portugal?
A. Dial Plan / Tables/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
B. Dial Plan / Operations/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
C. Dial Plan / Tables/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
D. Dial Plan / Operations/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 46 Which of the following terms are associated with Emergency 911?
A. 911 Database
B. ACT -Automatic Caller Tracking
C. PSAP-Public Safety Access Point
D. ALI -Automatic Location Identification
E. ANI-Automatic Number Identification
F. PEAP -Public Emergency Access Point
400-151 dumps Answer: ACDE

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QUESTION 15.CORRECT TEXT
Make a swap partition having 100MB. Make Automatically Usable at System Boot Time.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤To create new partition.Type n ¨¤ For New partitionIt will ask foLogical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Speciy either Last cylinder of Size here.Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name. Default System ID is 83 that means Linux Native.Type t to change the System ID of partition.Type Partition NumberType 82 that means Linux Swap.Press w to write on partitions table.Either Reboot or use partprobe command.mkswap /dev/hda?¨To create Swap File system on partition.swapon
/dev/hda?¨¤ To enable the Swap space from partition.free-m ¨¤ Verify Either Swap is enabled or not.vi /etc/fstab
/dev/hda? swap swap defaults 0 0Reboot the System and verify that swap is automatically enabled or not.
QUESTION 16.CORRECT TEXT
You are a System administrator. Using Log files very easy to monitor the system. Now there are 50 servers running as Mail, Web, Proxy, DNS services etc. You want to centralize the logs from all servers into on LOG Server. How will you configure the LOG Server to accept logs from remote host ?
Answer and Explanation:
By Default system accept the logs only generated from local host. To accept the Log from other host configure:vi /etc/sysconfig/syslog SYSLOGD_OPTIONS="-m 0 -r" Where
-m 0 disables 'MARK' messages.
-r enables logging from remote machines
-x disables DNS lookups on messages recieved with -rservice syslog restart
QUESTION 17.CORRECT TEXT
You are giving the debug RHCT exam. The examiner told you that the password of root is redhat. When you tried to login displays the error message and redisplayed the login screen. You changed the root password, again unable to login as a root. How will you make Successfully Login as a root.
Answer and Explanation:
When root unable to login into the system think:
1. Is password correct?
2. Is account expired?
3. Is terminal Blocked?
Do these Steps:
3. Boot the System on Single user mode.
4. Change the password
5. Check the account expire date by using chage -l root command.
If account is expired, set net expire date: chage -E "NEVER" root
4. Check the file /etc/securetty ¨¤ Which file blocked to root login from certain terminal.
5. If terminal is deleted or commented write new or uncomment.
6. Reboot the system and login as a root.
QUESTION 18.CORRECT TEXT
You are giving RHCT Exam and in your Exam paper there is a question written, make successfully ping to 192.168.0.254.
Answer and Explanation:
In Network problem thinks to check:
1. IP Configuration: use ifconfig command either IP is assigned to interface or not?
2. Default Gateway is set or not?
3. Hostname is set or not?
4. Routing problem is there?
5. Device Driver Module is loaded or not?
6. Device is activated or not?
Check In this way:
1. use ifconfig command and identify which IP is assigned or not.
2. cat /etc/sysconfig/network ¨¤What, What is written here. Actually here are these parameters
NETWORKING=yes or no
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
HOSTNAME=?
NISDOMAIN=?
-Correct the file
3. Use vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scirpts/ifcfg-eth0 and check the proper options
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BOOTPROTO=static
IPADDR=x.x.x.x
NETMAKS=x.x.x.x
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
4. Use service network restart or start command
QUESTION 19.CORRECT TEXT
Set the Hostname station?.example.com where ? is your Host IP Address.
Answer and Explanation:
1. hostname station?.example.com ¨¤ This will set the host name oly for current session. To set hostname permanently.
2. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
HOSTNAME=station?.example.com
3. service network restart
QUESTION 20.CORRECT TEXT
The System you are using is for NFS (Network File Services). Some important data are shared from your system. Make automatically start the nfs and portmap services at boot time.
Answer and Explanation:
We can control the services for current session and for next boot time also. For current Session,we use service servicename start or restart or stop or status. For automatically on next reboot time:
1. chkconfig servicename on or off
2. Reboot the system and identify whether services are running or not.
QUESTION 21
Given the following state table:
Which of the following represents an INVALID transition (N)?
A. Off from isplay Channel 1?
B. Channel 2 from Display Channel 1?
C. Stby from Live?
D. Channel 2 from Live?
400-051 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up?
A. Test implementation and execution.
B. Test planning and control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is ?0 and excess is ?,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is ?0 and excess is ?00.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is ?0 and excess is ?,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is ?0 and excess is ?,000
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which of the following are characteristic of test management tools?
a) They support traceability of tests to source documents.
b) They provide an interface to test execution tools.
c) They help to enforce coding standards.
d) They manipulate databases and files to set up test data.
A. a and c
B. b and c
C. a and b
D. b and d
400-051 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?
A. Each test level has the same test objective.
B. There should be more testing activities than development activities.
C. Test design can only begin when development is complete.
D. Testers should begin to review documents as soon as drafts are available.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Given the following flow chart diagram: What is the minimum number of test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage, respectively?
A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3.
B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3.
C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2.
D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3
400-051 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which of the following are structure-based techniques?
a) Decision table testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Multiple condition coverage
d) Use case testing
e) Decision testing
A. a and c.
B. b and d.
C. b and e.
D. c and e.
Correct Answer: D

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 QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following methods determines the principle name of the current user and returns the jav a.security.Principal object in the HttpServletRequest interface?
A. getUserPrincipal()
B. isUserInRole()
C. getRemoteUser()
D. getCallerPrincipal()
400-101 exam Answer: A
Explanation: The getUserPrincipal() method determines the principle name of the current user and returns the java.security.Principal object. The java.security.Principal object contains the remote user name. The value of the getUserPrincipal() method returns null if no user is authenticated. Answer: C is incorrect. The getRemoteUser() method returns the user name that is used for the client authentication. The value of the getRemoteUser() method returns null if no user is authenticated. Answer: B is incorrect. The isUserInRole() method determines whether the remote user is granted a specified user role. The value of the isUserInRole() method returns true if the remote user is granted the specified user role; otherwise it returns false. Answer: D is incorrect. The getCallerPrincipal() method is used to identify a caller using a java.security.Principal object. It is not used in the HttpServletRequest interface.
QUESTION NO: 33
The NIST Information Security and Privacy Advisory Board (ISPAB) paper "Perspectives on Cloud Computing and Standards" specifies potential advantages and disdvantages of virtualization. Which of the following disadvantages does it include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It increases capabilities for fault tolerant computing using rollback and snapshot features.
B. It increases intrusion detection through introspection.
C. It initiates the risk that malicious software is targeting the VM environment.
D. It increases overall security risk shared resources.
E. It creates the possibility that remote attestation may not work.
F. It involves new protection mechanisms for preventing VM escape, VM detection, and VM-VM interference.
G. It increases configuration effort because of complexity and composite system.
Answer: C,D,E,F,G
Explanation: The potential security disadvantages of virtualization are as follows: It increases configuration effort because of complexity and composite system. It initiates the problem of how to prevent overlap while mapping VM storage onto host files. It introduces the problem of virtualizing the TPM. It creates the possibility that remote attestation may not work. It initiates the problem of detecting VM covert channels. It involves new protection mechanisms for preventing VM escape, VM detection, and VM-VM interference. It initiates the possibility of virtual networking configuration errors. It initiates the risk that malicious software is targeting the VM environment. It increases overall security risk shared resources, such as networks, clipboards, clocks, printers, desktop management, and folders. Answer: A and B are incorrect. These are not the disadvantages of virtualization, as described in the NIST Information Security and Privacy Advisory Board (ISPAB) paper "Perspectives on Cloud Computing and Standards".
QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following are the types of access controls? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Administrative
D. Automatic
400-101 dumps Answer: A,B,C
Explanation: Security guards, locks on the gates, and alarms come under physical access control. Policies and procedures implemented by an organization come under administrative access control. IDS systems, encryption, network segmentation, and antivirus controls come under technical access control. Answer: D is incorrect. There is no such type of access control as automatic control.
QUESTION NO: 35
What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Initiate IA implementation plan
B. Develop DIACAP strategy
C. Assign IA controls.
D. Assemble DIACAP team
E. Register system with DoD Component IA Program.
F. Conduct validation activity.
Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Explanation: The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk. The subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase are as follows: Register system with DoD Component IA Program. Assign IA controls. Assemble DIACAP team. Develop DIACAP strategy. Initiate IA implementation plan. Answer: F is incorrect. Validation activities are conducted in the second phase of the DIACAP process, i.e., Implement and Validate Assigned IA Controls.
QUESTION NO: 36
Which of the following attacks causes software to fail and prevents the intended users from accessing software?
A. Enabling attack
B. Reconnaissance attack
C. Sabotage attack
D. Disclosure attack
400-101 pdf Answer: C
Explanation: A sabotage attack is an attack that causes software to fail. It also prevents the intended users from accessing software. A sabotage attack is referred to as a denial of service (DoS) or compromise of availability. Answer: B is incorrect. The reconnaissance attack enables an attacker to collect information about software and operating environment. Answer: D is incorrect. The disclosure attack exposes the revealed data to an attacker. Answer: A is incorrect. The enabling attack delivers an easy path for other attacks.
QUESTION NO: 37
FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels shows that the procedures and controls have been implemented?
A. Level 2
B. Level 3
C. Level 5
D. Level 1
E. Level 4
Answer: B
Explanation: The following are the five levels of FITSAF based on SEI's Capability Maturity Model(CMM):
Level 1: The first level reflects that an asset has documented a security policy.
Level 2: The second level shows that the asset has documented procedures and controls to implement the policy.
Level 3: The third level indicates that these procedures and controls have been implemented.
Level 4: The fourth level shows that the procedures and controls are tested and reviewed.
Level 5: The fifth level is the final level and shows that the asset has procedures and controls fully integrated into a comprehensive program.
QUESTION NO: 38
Which of the following is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified?
A. Trademark
B. Copyright
C. Trade secret
D. Patent
400-101 vce Answer: A
Explanation: A trademark is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified. Its uniqueness makes the product noticeable among the same type of products. For example, Pentium and Athlon are brand names of the CPUs that are manufactured by Intel and AMD, respectively. The trademark law protects a company's trademark by making it illegal for other companies to use it without taking prior permission of the trademark owner. A trademark is registered so that others cannot use identical or similar marks. Answer: C is incorrect. A trade secret is a formula, practice, process, design, instrument, pattern, or compilation of information which is not generally known. It helps a business to obtain an economic advantage over its competitors or customers. In some jurisdictions, such secrets are referred to as confidential information or classified information. Answer: B is incorrect. A copyright is a form of intellectual property, which secures to its holder the exclusive right to produce copies of his or her works of
original expression, such as a literary work, movie, musical work or sound recording, painting, photograph, computer program, or industrial design, for a defined, yet extendable, period of time. It does not cover ideas or facts. Copyright laws protect intellectual property from misuse by other individuals. Answer: D is incorrect. A patent is a set of exclusive rights granted to anyone who invents any new and useful machine, process, composition of matter, etc. A patent enables the inventor to legally enforce his right to exclude others from using his invention.
QUESTION NO: 39
Della work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. A threat with a dollar value of $250,000 is expected to happen in her project and the frequency of threat occurrence per year is 0.01. What will be the annualized loss expectancy in her project?
A. $2,000
B. $2,500
C. $3,510
D. $3,500
Answer: B
Explanation: The annualized loss expectancy in her project will be $2,500. Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the annually expected financial loss to an organization from a threat. The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as follows: ALE = Single Loss
Expectancy (SLE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Here, it is as follows:
ALE = SLE * ARO
= 250,000 * 0.01
= 2,500
Answer: D, C, and A are incorrect. These are not valid answers.
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following coding practices are helpful in simplifying code? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than a single complex function.
B. Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden assumptions, recursions, and GoTo statements.
C. Programmers should implement high-consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow proper coding standards.
C. Processes should have multiple entry and exit points.
400-101 exam Answer: A,B,C
Explanation: The various coding practices that are helpful in simplifying the code are as follows: Programmers should implement high-consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow the proper coding standards. Software should implement the functions that are defined in the software specification. Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden assumptions, recursion, and GoTo statements. Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than a complex function. The processes should have only one entry point and minimum exit points. Interdependencies should be minimum so that a process module or component can be disabled when it is not needed, or replaced when it is found insecure or a better alternative is available, without disturbing the software operations. Programmers should use object-oriented techniques to keep the code simple and small. Some of the object-oriented techniques are object inheritance, encapsulation, and polymorphism. Answer: D is incorrect. Processes should have only one entry point and the minimum number of exit points.
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following methods does the Java Servlet Specification v2.4 define in the HttpServletRequest interface that control programmatic security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. getCallerIdentity()
B. isUserInRole()
C. getUserPrincipal()
D. getRemoteUser()
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation: The various methods of the HttpServletRequest interface are as follows: getRemoteUser(): It returns the user name that is used for the client authentication. The value of the getRemoteUser() method returns null if no user is authenticated. isUserInRole(): It determines whether the remote user is granted a specified user role. The value of the isUserInRole() method returns true if the remote user is granted the specified user role; otherwise it returns false. getUserPrincipal(): It determines the principle name of the current user and returns the java.security.Principal object. The java.security.Principal object contains the remote user name. The value of the getUserPrincipal() method returns null if no user is authenticated. Answer: A is incorrect. It is not defined in the HttpServletRequest interface. The getCallerIdentity() method is used to obtain the java.security.Identity of the caller.
QUESTION NO: 42
You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk events and creating a probability and impact matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis?
A. A qualitative risk analysis encourages biased data to reveal risk tolerances.
B. A qualitative risk analysis required unbiased stakeholders with biased risk tolerances.
C. A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible.
D. A qualitative risk analysis requires fast and simple data to complete the analysis.
400-101 dumps Answer: C
Explanation: Of all the choices only this answer is accurate. The PMBOK clearly states that the data must be accurate and unbiased to be credible. Answer: D is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data. Answer: A is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data. Answer: B is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data.

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QUESTION NO: 77
Primary customers are those individuals or groups that sponsor the audit. All of the following are examples of primary customers EXCEPT:
A. University and research groups.
B. Local/city governments.
C. National governments.
D. Regional/state governments.
300-370 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 78
Measurement criteria are considered relevant when they relate directly to the mission, goals, and objectives of the customer. All of the following are some possible examples of measurement criteria that could be used in performance audits EXCEPT:
A. Legal or contractual requirements for specific performance (e.g., efficiency standards, quality standards or goals for outcomes to be achieved by a program).
B. Benchmark performance by comparable public or private sector operations.
C. Customers feedback will be given the first and foremost importance.
D. Ad hoc criteria asserted by the auditors, such as comparisons to performance for a prior period, comparison of performance among branch offices or similar organizational divisions.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 79
All of the following is the terminologies used to refer to audits of performance EXCEPT:
A. Operational audit and program audit.
B. Management audit and value for-money audit
C. Comprehensive audit and broad-scope audit
D. Control audit
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 80
Program audits are designed to assess whether a program, activity, or function is achieving the desired results or benefits established by the legislature or other authorizing body. Program audits consider all of the following effectiveness issues EXCEPT:
A. Whether the program is achieving its intended objectives and is making its intended impact on stakeholders.
B. Whether the organization has adequate systems for planning, managing, and monitoring to achieve its goals and objectives.
C. Reported measures of economy and efficiency that are valid and reliable.
D. Whether the program duplicates, overlaps, or conflicts with another program.
300-370 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 81
Management controls are the plans, methods, and procedures adopted by management for measuring, reporting, and monitoring program performance. All of the following are objectives of management control EXCEPT:
A. Program operations
B. controlled operations
C. Compliance with laws and regulations.
D. Validity and reliability of data.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 82
_____________involves interviews, observations, and inspections appropriate to the audit objectives. Auditors often design tests of specific management controls based on information gained in previous audits:
A. Market control management
B. Bureaucratic control management
C. Clan control
D. Testing management controls
300-370 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 83
An assessment of management controls can influence all of the following elements of the audit
program EXCEPT:
A. Objectives:
B. Structure
C. Methodology.
D. Scope
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 84
Which of the following parameters is NOT used for calculating the capacity of the hard disk?
A. Bytes per sector
B. Number of heads
C. Total number of sectors
D. Number of platters
300-370 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 85
In which of the following access control models can a user not grant permissions to other users to see a copy of an object marked as secret that he has received, unless they have the appropriate permissions?A. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
B. Access Control List (ACL)
C. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
D. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 86
Adam works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. He has been called by the FBI to examine data of the hard disk, which is seized from the house of a suspected terrorist. Adam decided to acquire an image of the suspected hard drive. He uses a forensic hardware tool, which is capable of capturing data from IDE, Serial ATA, SCSI devices, and flash cards. This tool can also produce MD5 and CRC32 hash while capturing the data. Which of the following tools is Adam using?
A. Wipe MASSter
B. ImageMASSter 4002i
C. ImageMASSter Solo-3
D. FireWire DriveDock
300-370 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 87
Adam works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. A project has been assigned to him to investigate the BlackBerry, which is suspected to be used to hide some important information. Which of the following is the first step taken to preserve the information in forensic investigation of the BlackBerry?
A. Keep BlackBerry in 'ON' state.
B. Remove the storage media.
C. Eliminate the ability of the device to receive the push data.
D. Turn off the BlackBerry.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 88
All of the following are the Aspects of control activities that would help an auditor assess vulnerability EXCEPT:
A. Planning about future events
B. Inadequate performance monitoring by high-level management and prolonged understaffing.
C. Lack of competence and integrity of management and staff.
D. Acceptance of audit findings and corrective action taken.
300-370 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 89
Which of The following two approaches can be used to evaluate management controls in Performance audits please choose the correct option?
A. measurement based approach
B. Targeted approach
C. Planning based approach
D. Comprehensive approach
 Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 90
The goal of the comprehensive approach is to identify potential significant control weaknesses for further review. All of the following are the general steps in the process EXCEPT:
A. Document and evaluate work processes and controls.
B. Acceptance of audit findings and corrective action taken.
C. Select a sample of transactions and determine if processes and controls are functioning as intended.
D. Determine or estimate the effect of control weakness of program goals and objectives.
300-370 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 91
In what ways Performance auditors provide information to government policymakers please choose the correct option
A. By not performing investigative work.
B. Developing conclusions about the economy, efficiency, and effectiveness of government programs and making recommendations for improvement.
C. by giving informal reports
D. Developing methods and approaches to evaluate a new or a proposed program.Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 92
The purpose of ___________audits of is to issue an opinion on the fairness of the financial statements and to evaluate the following assertions (explicit or implicit) by management:
A. Income statement
B. Financial statements
C. Ban reconciliation statement
D. Both A & B
300-370 vce Answer: B

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