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QUESTION 1

You need to manage a Windows Server 2016 server from a Windows client computer by using a Management Console.

What should you install on the client computer?

A. Remote Assistance

B. Remote Server Administration Tools

C. Windows Server Resource Kit

D. Microsoft Office SharePoint Server

Correct Answer: B

Example: Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows 8.1 enables IT administrators to manage roles and features

that are installed on computers that are running Windows Server 2012 or Windows Server 2012 R2 from a remote

computer that is running Windows 8.1 Pro or Windows 8.1 Enterprise.

QUESTION 2

You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 Active Directorybased network. The company has three departments named Sales, Purchase, and Marketing.

You are required to create organizational units (OU) structure for each department in the network.

Which of the following are the reasons for defining an OU? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

Choose all that apply.

A. To delegate administration.

B. To administer domain controllers.

C. To hide objects.

D. To administer group policy.

Correct Answer: ACD

Organizational units (OUs) are defined to delegate administration, to administer group policy, or to hide objects.

Delegating administration is the prime reason for defining OUs.

QUESTION 3

Which of the following master roles is used for synchronizing cross-domain group membership changes?

A. Domain Naming Master role

B. Infrastructure Master role

C. Schema Master role

D. RID Master role

Correct Answer: B

The Infrastructure Master role is used for synchronizing cross-domain group membership changes. Incorrect Answers:

A: The Domain Naming Master role is used for controlling the addition and removal of domains from the forest if they

are present in the root domain.

C: The Schema Master role is used for controlling and handling updates and modifications to the Active Directory

schema.

D: The RID Master role is used for allocating pools of unique identifiers to domain controllers for use when creating

objects.

QUESTION 4

You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 network environment.

All client computers on the network run the Windows 10 Pro operating system. All servers of the company run Windows

Server 2016.

You want to create a VHD file on Windows Server 2016 in order to specify a virtual machine hard disk.

Which of the following tools will you use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

(Choose two.)

A. DiskPart

B. Disk Management MMC snap-in

C. FDISK

D. BCDEdit

Correct Answer: AB

In order to accomplish the task, you should use the DiskPart and Disk Management MMC snap-in tools. These tools

help create a VHD file on Windows Server 2016 for specifying a virtual machine hard disk.

QUESTION 5

You maintain backup schedules for a Windows Server 2016 server. Some users store vital information on their local

hard drives.

You need to include the users\\’ data when you perform nightly backups of the server.

Which built-in process should you use?

A. Agent backup

B. Folder redirection

C. Local backup schedules

D. System state data backup

Correct Answer: B

Use folder redirection to store the vital information on a network share instead. Then it will be easy to backup this data.

Note: Folder Redirection lets administrators redirect the path of a folder to a new location. The location can be a folder

on the local computer or a directory on a network file share. Users can work with documents on a server as if the

documents were based on a local drive.

References: Folder Redirection Overview https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732275.aspx

QUESTION 6

You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. You are responsible for troubleshooting various issues that come

in on a day-to-day basis from the local and remote locations.

Which of the following tools will you use to determine the time and type of the problem occurred in a particular system?

A. Task Manager

B. Performance Monitor

C. Event Viewer

D. Resource Monitor

Correct Answer: C

In order to determine the time and type of the problem occurred in a particular system, you should use the Event

Viewer.

The Event Viewer allows checking of the log of multiple servers.

Diagnostic logging helps in figuring out problems on several servers (with the databases on those servers), and for the

diagnostic logging, the user can view event logs with the Event Viewer in Windows or the Web Event Viewer in

SharePoint

Central Administration.

Incorrect Answers:

A: A task manager is a program used to provide information about the processes and programs running on a computer,

as well as the general status of the computer. It can also be used to terminate processes and programs, as well as

change the processes priority. The task manager is most commonly accessed by pressing the buttons Control-AltDelete. Task manager also displays all the services that are currently running as well as those that were stopped. All

information\\’s about the services such as Process ID and their group if they are applicable.

B: Performance Monitor is a Windows tool that monitors system and network resources. It is used to get statistical data

about hardware and software components of a server.

D: Resource Monitor is a suite of administration tools designed to provide a quick overview of a single user interface. It

acts as a mediator between the Cluster service and the resource dynamic link library. It can be launched from the start menu or from the Task Manager using the Performance tab. Resource Monitor can be accessed by searching in the

Reliability and Performance monitor.

QUESTION 7

Which of the following alerts gets generated when any server or client computer in the network has low disk space,

which is less than 10% available across all volumes?

A. Network Services Alerts

B. Server Event Log Alerts

C. User Performance Alerts

D. Performance Counter Alerts

Correct Answer: D

Performance Counter Alerts is generated by default when any server or client computer in the network has low disk

space, which is less than 10% available across all volumes.

Incorrect Answers:

A: Network Services Alerts is generated by default when Windows monitors network services that are set to start

automatically, and then it generates an alert if the service stops. These services are critical to the functioning of the

network.

B: Server Event Log Alerts gets generated when Windows monitors a specific set of events across the event logs. If any

of the events are detected, an alert is generated and displayed in the Other Alerts section of the reports.

C: There is no such alert as User Performance alerts in Windows.

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QUESTION 1

Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security

mechanisms?

A. HDLC

B. PPP

C. X.25

D. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: B

PPP: Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits. PPP was

designed to work with several network layer protocols, including IP. PPP also has built-in security mechanisms, such as

Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) and Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).

QUESTION 2

An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned MAC

addresses from the address table added to the running configuration. Which action must be taken to accomplish this?

A. Use theno switchport port-securitycommand to allow MAC addresses to be added to the configuration.

B. Enable port security and use the keywordsticky.

C. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration.

D. Use theswitchport protectedcommand to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

How can you manually configure a switch so that it is selected as the root Switch?

A. increase the priority number

B. lower the port priority number

C. lower the priority number

D. increase the port priority number

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

Which two benefits of implementing a full-mesh WAN topology are true?(Choose two)

A. increased latency

B. redundancy

C. improved scalability

D. reliability

E. reduced itter

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5

Which three commands are required to enable NTP authentication on a Cisco router? (Choose three)

A. ntp peer

B. ntp max-associations

C. ntp authenticate

D. ntp trusted-key

E. ntp authentication-key

F. ntp refclock

Correct Answer: CDE

Explanation: http://blog.ine.com/2007/12/28/how-does-ntp-authentication-work/

QUESTION 6

Which command can you enter to verify that a router is synced with a configures time source?

A. show ntp authenticate

B. ntp associations

C. ntp server time

D. ntp authenticate

E. show ntp associations

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7

When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table, how does it handle the packet?

A. It discards the packet

B. It sends the packet over the route with the best metric

C. It sends the packet to the next hop address

D. It sends the packet to the gateway of last resort

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

You deploy a computer running Windows Server 2016 in your perimeter network. You want to use this computer to

route traffic between the Internet and your network.

Which role do you need to configure?

To answer, select the appropriate role in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Network Controller is a highly available and scalable server role, and provides one application programming interface

(API) that allows Network Controller to communicate with the network, and a second API that allows you to

communicate with Network Controller.

QUESTION 2

Which DNS record type specifies the host that is the authority for a given domain?

A. NS

B. MX

C. CNAME

D. SOA

Correct Answer: D

The start of authority (SOA) resource record indicates the name of origin for the zone and contains the name of the

server that is the primary source for information about the zone. It also indicates other basic properties of the zone.

QUESTION 3

Match each IP address to its corresponding IPv4 address class.

To answer, drag the appropriate IP address from the column on the left to its IPv4 address class on the right. Each IP

address may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4

Which of the following uses a tunneling protocol?

A. Internet

B. VPN

C. Extranet

D. VLAN

Correct Answer: B

Tunneling enables the encapsulation of a packet from one type of protocol within the datagram of a different protocol.

For example, VPN uses PPTP to encapsulate IP packets over a public network, such as the Internet.

QUESTION 5

What is a similarity between Layer 2 and Layer 3 switches?

A. Both provide a high level of security to the network.

B. Both use logical addressing to forward transmissions.

C. Both forward packets onto the network.

D. Both allow the implementation of VLANs.

Correct Answer: D

A single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so

that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a virtual local area

network, virtual LAN or VLAN.

LANs are layer 2 constructs, so they can be supported by both Layer 2 and Layer 3 switches.

Incorrect:

Not A: Layer 2 switches do not provide high level of security.

Not B: Another name for logical address is IP address. Only Layer 3 switches uses IP address. Layer 2 switches uses

MAC addresses.

Not C: only Layer 3 switches forward packets on the network (like routers).

QUESTION 6

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is

worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 1

Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)

A. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations

have equal priority to transmit data.

B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.

C. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.

D. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domain is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access

method.

E. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to

transmitting data.

F. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until media is not in use before transmitting.

Correct Answer: AF

Ethernet networking uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detect (CSMA/CD), a protocol that helps devices

share the bandwidth evenly without having two devices transmit at the same time on the network medium. CSMA/CD

was created to overcome the problem of those collisions that occur when packets are transmitted simultaneously from

different nodes. And trust me, good collision management is crucial, because when a node transmits in a CSMA/CD

network, all the other nodes on the network receive and examine that transmission. Only bridges and routers can

effectively prevent a transmission from propagating throughout the entire network! So, how does the CSMA/CD protocol

work? Like this: when a host wants to transmit over the network, it first checks for the presence of a digital signal on the

wire. If all is clear (no other host is transmitting), the host will then proceed with its transmission. But it doesn\\’t stop

there. The transmitting host constantly monitors the wire to make sure no other hosts begin transmitting. If the host

detects another signal on the wire, it sends out an extended jam signal that causes all nodes on the segment to stop

sending data (think, busy signal). The nodes respond to that jam signal by waiting a while before attempting to transmit

again. Backoff algorithms determine when the colliding stations can retransmit. If collisions keep occurring after 15 tries,

the nodes attempting to transmit will then time out.

QUESTION 2

Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask 255.255.255.224?

A. 192.168.2.63

B. 192.168.2.62

C. 192.168.2.61

D. 192.168.2.60

E. 192.168.2.32

Correct Answer: B

With the 224 there are 8 networks with increments of 32 One of these is 32 33 62 63 where 63 is broadcast so 62 is last

valid host out of given choices.

QUESTION 3

What interfaces on Router1 have not had any configurations applied? (Choose two.)

A. Ethernet 0

B. FastEthernet 0/0

C. FastEthernet 0/1

D. Serial 0

E. Serial 0/0

F. Serial 0/1

Correct Answer: BF

User the “show ip interface brief” command

Notice that Router1 does not have Ethernet 0 and Serial 0 interfaces. FastEthernet 0/1 and Serial 0/0 were configured

with their IP addresses therefore only FastEthernet 0/0 and Serial0/1 have not had any configurations applied.

QUESTION 4

Which value represents a host route?

A. 192.168.1.0/30

B. 192.168.1.0/24

C. 192.168.1.2/31

D. 192.168.1.0/32

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve

the reliability of this communication session?

A. decrease the window size

B. use a different source port for the session

C. decrease the sequence number

D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server

E. start a new session using UDP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

You recently applied a common configuration to several PCs on different VLANs. The PCs are connected to the same

switch with a router-on-a-stick, but users report that the PCs cannot ping one another. Which two are possible reasons

for the problem? (Choose two.)

A. The access ports on the PCs are misconfigured.

B. The native VLAN on the router is misconfigured.

C. The ip default-network command is misconfigured on the router.

D. The trunking protocol is configured incorrectly on the router subinterfaces.

E. The VLAN is configured incorrectly on the router subinterfaces.

Correct Answer: AE

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QUESTION 1

Which are two features of the Cisco 1100 or 4000 series ISR router product lines? (Choose two.)

A. Unified communications with series build apps for Cisco TDM

B. Advanced LTE backup connectivity offering network resiliency for business continuity

C. Cloud-based hardware management

D. Limited connectivity options

E. 50 to 200 Mbps WAN connections with rich branch services – the same services found at HQ

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2

What is the right approach to achieve secure infrastructure against attack requirements of WAN connectivity?

A. Monitoring application performance

B. Operational simplicity for server infrastructure

C. Simple and agile service deployment model

D. Introduce Advanced Threat Defense solution

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

What are two ways that MX security appliances achieve automatic failover and high availability? (Choose two.)

A. Always on (availability groups)

B. Survivable Remote Site Technology (SRST)

C. Warm spare (using VRRP)

D. Redundant gateways (using HSRP)

E. Dual redundant uplink support (multiple ISPs)

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4

Which two features of the Cisco catalyst 1100 ISR router deliver a high performance and high-quality experience?

(Choose two.)

A. Mobility express to simplify wireless deployment and operation

B. Application hosting

C. 802.11ac Wi-Fi support

D. WAN and application optimization with WAAS

E. Unified communications with series build apps for Cisco TDM

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5

Which three statements describe Cisco Aironet 1815 Series Access Points? (Choose three.)

A. The most cost-efficient offering designed for SMB in the Cisco Wireless AP portfolio (less than $5/AP/month)

B. An ideal solution for large organizations

C. Offers next-generation 3×3 MIMO with Wave 2 802.11ac

D. Easy to deploy and manage with Cisco Mobility Express

E. Increases total cost of ownership while delivering advanced features like 802.11ac Wave 2

F. Ideal for organizations looking to address growth but have budget restrictions

Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 6

What is Meraki\\’s core vision and value proposition?

A. To operate in increasingly mobile, modern networks by delivering preventative protection without compromising

performance

B. To provide a complete cloud-managed IT solution through simplifying powerful technology

C. To lead in the invention and development of the industry\\’s most advanced information technologies

D. To shape the future of the internet by creating opportunities for the investors and ecosystem partners

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

Which of the following states that a user should never be given more privileges than are required to carry out a task?

A. Security through obscurity

B. Segregation of duties

C. Principle of least privilege

D. Role-based security

Correct Answer: C

The principle of least privilege states that a user should never be given more privileges than are required to carry out a

task. The user should not be logged on as an administrator, if the user is not doing administrative work on a computer.

The administrator account should be used for performing tasks, such as changing system time, installing software, or

creating standard accounts. Answer: D is incorrect. Role-based security provided by the .NET Framework allows,

grants, or

denies access to resources based on a Windows user\\’s identity. It is built on the principle that the user is authenticated

and can be authorized or assigned roles and permissions.

Answer: B is incorrect. Segregation of duties is used to determine whether decision-making, executive tasks, or control

tasks are carried out by a person to avoid unauthorized or unintended changes or the misuse of the organization\\’s

assets.

Whether the person needs access to information can also be determined. The risk of information being intentionally or

unintentionally used, altered, or destroyed is increased by unnecessary access. It is called the \\’need to know\\’

principle.

Answer: A is incorrect. Security through obscurity is a principle in security engineering, which attempts to use secrecy

(of design, implementation, etc.) to provide security. A system relying on security through obscurity may have theoretical

or

actual security vulnerabilities, but its owners or designers believe that the flaws are not known, and that attackers are

unlikely to find them.

QUESTION 2

You would implement a wireless intrusion prevention system to:

A. Prevent wireless interference

B. Detect wireless packet theft

C. Prevent rogue wireless access points

D. Enforce SSID broadcasting

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wireless_intrusion_prevention_system

QUESTION 3

Which two security settings can be controlled by using group policy? (Choose two.)

A. Password complexity

B. Access to the Run… command

C. Automatic file locking

D. Encrypted access from a smart phone

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc875814.aspx

QUESTION 4

Which enables access to all of the logged-in user\\’s capabilities on a computer?

A. Java applets

B. ActiveX controls

C. Active Server Pages (ASP)

D. Microsoft Silverlight

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

What are three examples of factors required for multi-factor authentication? (Choose three.)

A. a username

B. a smart card

C. a fingerprint

D. a password challenge question

E. a pin number

Correct Answer: ACE

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-authentication-methods

QUESTION 6

John works as a Network Administrator for We-are-secure Inc. The We-are-secure server is based on Windows Server

2003. One day, while analyzing the network security, he receives an error message that Kernel32.exe is encountering a

problem. Which of the following steps should John take as a countermeasure to this situation? Each correct answer

represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. He should restore his Windows settings.

B. He should upgrade his antivirus program.

C. He should observe the process viewer (Task Manager) to see whether any new process is running on the computer

or not. If any new malicious process is running, he should kill that process.

D. He should download the latest patches for Windows Server 2003 from the Microsoft site, so that he can repair the

kernel.

Correct Answer: BC

Answer: B and C

In such a situation, when John receives an error message revealing that Kernel32.exe is encountering a problem, he

needs to come to the conclusion that his antivirus program needs to be updated, because Kernel32.exe is not a

Microsoft

file (It is a Kernel32.DLL file.).

Although such viruses normally run on stealth mode, he should examine the process viewer (Task Manager) to see

whether any new process is running on the computer or not. If any new process (malicious) is running on the server, he

should exterminate that process.

Answer: A and D are incorrect. Since kernel.exe is not a real kernel file of Windows, there is no need to repair or

download any patch for Windows Server 2003 from the Microsoft site to repair the kernel.

Note: Such error messages can be received if the computer is infected with malware, such as Worm_Badtrans.b,

Backdoor.G_Door, Glacier Backdoor, Win32.Badtrans.29020, etc.

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QUESTION 1

Which three features does an ASA 5506-X appliance with FirePOWER Services provide? (Choose three.)

A. reliable visibility

B. data loss prevention

C. NGIPS

D. next generation firewall

E. URL filtering

F. Talos

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2

Which option is the best example of how Cisco solution enable customer\\’s business?

A. faster threat identification

B. better ability to scale and alter your environment

C. best continuous analysis

D. only comprehensive policy enforcement tool

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

How does the Cisco policy and access solution handle a changing user base in growing company?

A. Cisco delivers a flexible and scalable security solution framework that can adapt to changing customer needs

B. Cisco architecture offers the lowest TCO by providing product that integrate, which lowers the cost of IT setup,

management, and maintenance.

C. Cisco Talos Security Intelligence and Research Group integrates into all security solutions, which provides advanced

protection against new threats.

D. Cisco provides you the ability to monitor and restrict application usage. As applications become more complex, Cisco

provides the flexibility to control all or subsets of the application.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Which three options must a customer look for when choosing a security solution provider? (Choose three.)

A. delivers better partner and customer support

B. offers more than just niche products

C. is committed to security

D. generates higher margins on each sale

E. provides solutions at the lowest cost

F. prioritizes one security solution above all else

G. creates new market opportunities

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5

Which component of NGFW and NGIPS provides a unified image that includes the Cisco ASA features and FirePOWER

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A. Firepower Threat Defense

B. Meraki MX

C. Next GenerationlPS

D. Cloudlock

E. Advanced Malware Protection

Correct Answer: A

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The latest Microsoft AZ-103 exam exercises test your strength

QUESTION 1

You have an Azure policy as shown in the following exhibit.

What is the effect of the policy?

A. You are prevented from creating Azure SQL Servers in ContosoRG1 only.

B. You can create Azure SQL servers in ContosoRG1 only.

C. You can create Azure SQL servers in any resource group within Subscription1.

D. You are prevented from creating Azure SQL servers anywhere in Subscription1.

Correct Answer: B

You are prevented from creating Azure SQL servers anywhere in Subscription 1 with the exception of ContosoRG1

QUESTION 2

You have an on-premises network that includes a Microsoft SQL Server instance named SQL1.

You create an Azure Logic App named App1.

You need to ensure that App1 can query a database on SQL1.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions

to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

To access data sources on premises from your logic apps, you can create a data gateway resource in Azure so that

your logic apps can use the on-premises connectors. Box 1: From an on-premises computer, install an on-premises

data gateway. Before you can connect to on-premises data sources from Azure Logic Apps, download and install the onpremises data gateway on a local computer. Box 2: From the Azure portal, create an on-premises data gateway Create

Azure resource for gateway After you install the gateway on a local computer, you can then create an Azure resource

for your gateway. This step also associates your gateway resource with your Azure subscription.

1.Sign in to the Azure portal. Make sure you use the same Azure work or school email address used to install the

gateway.

2.On the main Azure menu, select Create a resource > Integration > On-premises data gateway.

3.On the Create connection gateway page, provide this information for your gateway resource.

4.To add the gateway resource to your Azure dashboard, select Pin to dashboard. When you\\’re done, choose Create.

Box 3: From the Logic Apps Designer in the Azure portal, add a connector After you create your gateway resource and

associate your Azure subscription with this resource, you can now create a connection between your logic app and your

on-premises data source by using the gateway.

5.In the Azure portal, create or open your logic app in the Logic App Designer.

6.Add a connector that supports on-premises connections, for example, SQL Server.

7.Set up your connection

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-gateway-connection

QUESTION 3

You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1.

You have 5 TB of data that you need to transfer to Subscription1.

You plan to use an Azure Import/Export job.

What can you use as the destination of the imported data?

A. Azure SQL Database

B. Azure File Storage

C. An Azure Cosmos DB database

D. The Azure File Sync Storage Sync Service

E. Azure Data Factory

F. A virtual machine

Correct Answer: B

Azure Import/Export service is used to securely import large amounts of data to Azure Blob storage and Azure Files by

shipping disk drives to an Azure datacenter.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-service

QUESTION 4

You have an on-premises network that contains a Hyper-V host named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2016 and

hosts 10 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016.

You plan to replicate the virtual machines to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery.

You create a Recovery Services vault named ASR1 and a Hyper-V site named Site1.

You need to add Host1 to ASR1.

What should you do?

A. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the vault registration key. Install the

Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.

B. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the storage account key. Install the

Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.

C. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the vault registration key. Install the

Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.

D. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the storage account key. Install the

Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.

Correct Answer: A

Download the Vault registration key. You need this when you install the Provider. The key is valid for five days after you

generate it.

Install the Provider on each VMM server. You don\\’t need to explicitly install anything on Hyper-V hosts.

Incorrect Answers:

B, D: Use the Vault Registration Key, not the storage account key.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/migrate-tutorial-on-premises-azure

QUESTION 5

You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that contains the resources in the following table.

A web server runs on VM1 and VM2.

When you request a webpage named Page1.htm from the Internet, LB1 balances the web requests to VM1 and VM2,

and you receive a response.

On LB1, you have a rule named Rule1 as shown in the Rule1 exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

You have a health probe named Probe1 as shown in the Probe1 exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct

selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

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SPEDGE 642-889 online exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

On Cisco IOS and IOS XE Layer 3 MPLS VPN implementations, when redistributing the customer RIP routes into MPBGP, the RIP metric is copied into which BGP attribute?

A. local preference

B. weight

C. MED

D. extended community

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

When implementing H-VPLS with QinQ access on Cisco Metro Ethernet switches, which two commands enable the

QinQ tagging? (Choose two.)

A. encapsulation dot1q {customer-vlan} second-tag {sp-vlan}

B. encapsulation dot1q {sp-vlan} second-tag {customer-vlan}

C. switchport mode dot1q-tunnel

D. switchport mode trunk

E. switchport access vlan {sp-vlan}

F. switchport access vlan {customer-vlan}

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3

A customer needs Internet and MPLS services from the service provider and needs to ensure traffic from the Internet

network does not constrain MPLS traffic. Which shared MPLS/Internet service type best accommodates this

requirement?

A. partial separation

B. full separation

C. Multisite Internet Access

D. Internet tunnel over MPLS

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Which VPN technology allows remote sites with dynamic IP addresses to connect to a central hub?

A. static IPsec tunnels

B. site-to-site VPN

C. DMPVN

D. VRFs

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

On PE7, how many multiprotocol IBGP routes are learned from PE8 and what is the next-hop IP address? (Choose

two.)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 10.8.1.1

E. 172.16.8.1

F. 192.168.108.81

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6

When implementing MPLS Layer 3 VPNs with customers running OSPF as the CE-PE routing protocol, the service

provider MPLS backbone looks like what to the CE routers?

A. the backbone (Area 0)

B. an external routing domain

C. a superbackbone that is transparent to the CE OSPF routers

D. a transit area (similar to a transit area for supporting virtual links)

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

In Cisco IOS, what must be configured to ensure that an MPLS TE tunnel becomes active?

A. layer 3 addressing on the tunnel, to establish bidirectional communication over the tunnel

B. the tunnel for autoroute, to ensure proper installation into the forwarding plane

C. a path-option configuration, for either dynamic or explicit paths

D. the tunnel with a minimum bandwidth value, to properly calculate CSPF

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

When implementing Cisco MPLS TE, the constrained-based path calculations will use which value as the TE cost of

each link within the MPLS domain?

A. By default, it will use the IGP metric, or each link can be assigned a specific value using the admin-weight command.

B. It can only use the IGP metric as the TE cost.

C. It will use the interface bandwidth as the TE cost.

D. Each link must be assigned a TE cost using the metric command.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

The Cisco IOS and IOS XE qos pre-classify command allows which kind of packet classification on IP packets that are

encapsulated with GRE and IPsec?

A. allows for packets to be classified based on the ToS byte values before packet encryption

B. allows for packets to be classified based on the ToS byte values after packet encryption

C. allows for packets to be classified based on the packet payload before packet encryption

D. allows for packets to be classified based on the packet payload after packet encryption

E. allows for packets to be classified based on the packet header parameters other than the ToS byte values after

packet encryption

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4

An engineer must automatically copy the IP Prec/DiffServ PHB marking to the EXP bits of the imposed MPLS label on

the ingress PE, as well as the MPLS EXP bits to the IP Prec/DiffServ of the egress PE. Which MPLS QoS model is

suitable for this requirement?

A. pipe model

B. short-pipe model

C. uniform model

D. uniform pipe model

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit. From which table was the information obtained?

A. FIB

B. CEF

C. LIB

D. LFIB

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which two traffic types are recognized by NBAR default configuration settings? (Choose two.)

A. HTTP URL

B. Sun RPC

C. TCP

D. UDP

E. HTTPS URL

Correct Answer: AB

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Microsoft Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure exam certification information

    The content of this exam was updated on November 6, 2019. Please download the Skills measured document below to see what changed.

    Develop Azure Infrastructure as a Service compute solution (10-15%)

    Develop Azure Platform as a Service compute solution (20-25%)

    Develop for Azure storage (15-20%)

    Implement Azure security (10-15%)

    Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize solutions (10-15%)

    Connect to and consume Azure and third-party services (20-25%)

Az-203 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

You need to ensure that authentication events are triggered and processed according to the policy.

Solution: Create a new Azure Event Grid subscription for all authentication that delivers messages to an Azure Event

Hub. Use the subscription to process signout events.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

HOTSPOT

You need to retrieve all order line items sorted alphabetically by the city.

How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 3

HOTSPOT

You are developing an Azure App Service hosted ASP.NET Core web app to deliver video on-demand streaming

media. You enable an Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) Standard for the web endpoint. Customer videos are

downloaded

from the web app by using the following example URL:http//www.contoso.com/content.p4?quality=1

All media content must expire from the cache after one hour. Customer videos with varying quality must be delivered to

the closest regional point of presence (POP) node.

You need to configure Azure CDN caching rules.

Which options should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Override

Override: Ignore origin-provided cache duration; use the provided cache duration instead. This will not override cachecontrol: no-cache.

Set if missing: Honor origin-provided cache-directive headers, if they exist; otherwise, use the provided cache duration.

Incorrect:

Bypass cache: Do not cache and ignore origin-provided cache-directive headers.

Box 2: 1 hour

All media content must expire from the cache after one hour.

Box 3: Cache every unique URL

Cache every unique URL: In this mode, each request with a unique URL, including the query string, is treated as a

unique asset with its own cache. For example, the response from the origin server for a request for

example.ashx?q=test1 is

cached at the POP node and returned for subsequent caches with the same query string. A request for

example.ashx?q=test2 is cached as a separate asset with its own time-to-live setting.

Incorrect Answers:

Bypass caching for query strings: In this mode, requests with query strings are not cached at the CDN POP node. The

POP node retrieves the asset directly from the origin server and passes it to the requestor with each request.

Ignore query strings: Default mode. In this mode, the CDN point-of-presence (POP) node passes the query strings from

the requestor to the origin server on the first request and caches the asset. All subsequent requests for the asset that

are

served from the POP ignore the query strings until the cached asset expires.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cdn/cdn-query-string

QUESTION 4

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.

Solution: Configure notifications in the Azure API Management instance.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Use a custom outbound Azure API Management policy.

Scenario:

If a vendor is nearing the number of calls or bandwidth limit, the API must trigger email notifications to the vendor.

(API usage must not exceed 5,000 calls and 50,000 kilobytes of bandwidth per hour per vendor.)

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto- policies

QUESTION 5

HOTSPOT

You need to tool code at line LE03 of Login Event to ensure that all authentication events are processed correctly. How

should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 6

HOTSPOT

You need to configure retries in the LoadUserDetails function in the Database class without impacting user experience.

What code should you insert on line DB07?

To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Policy

RetryPolicy retry = Policy

.Handle()

.Retry(3);

The above example will create a retry policy which will retry up to three times if an action fails with an exception handled

by the Policy.

Box 2: WaitAndRetryAsync(3,i => TimeSpan.FromMilliseconds(100* Math.Pow(2,i-1)));

A common retry strategy is exponential backoff: this allows for retries to be made initially quickly, but then at

progressively longer intervals, to avoid hitting a subsystem with repeated frequent calls if the subsystem may be struggling.

Example:

Policy

.Handle()

.WaitAndRetry(3, retryAttempt =>

TimeSpan.FromSeconds(Math.Pow(2, retryAttempt))

);

References:

https://github.com/App-vNext/Polly/wiki/Retry

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