Thursday, October 31, 2019

Pass4itsure 500-325 Exam Dumps - Pass the Cisco 500-470 exam with a high score

500-325 exam is an important part of Cisco certification.You do not need to worry for the 500-325 exam preparation as Pass4itsure has made it easier to prepare for the Cisco 500-325 exam. https://www.pass4itsure.com/500-325.html is a reliable platform that offers 100% genuine exam questions for 500-325 with passing assurance.

About Cisco Certifications

Cisco is a leading provider of information technology and networking solutions, providing entry-level to expert-level certification. There is also a top-level certificate called Architect. Cisco credentials for individuals who want to be experts in a variety of technical areas, including security and networking

Most technician exams cost $125 each.
The Entry-level certifications are intended for beginners who wish to become networking professionals.

  • CCENT
  • CCT
Each certification test, except CCNA Routing and Switching 200-125, costs $300. 


The Associate-level certifications include Cisco Certified Design Associate (CCDA), Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA), which is further divided into CCNA Cloud, Collaboration, Data Center, Cyber Ops, Routing and Switching, Industrial, Security, Service Provider, and Wireless. 

  • CCDA
  • CCNA
The cost of each exam is $300.
The Professional-level certifications include Cisco Certified Design Professional (CCDP) and Cisco Certified Network Professional (CCNP). 

  • CCDP
  • CCNP
The written test costs $450 while the practical one – $1600.
The Expert-level certifications with no prerequisites include Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE) and Cisco Certified Internetwork Experts (CCIE), which is further divided into CCIE Collaboration, Data Center, Routing and Switching, Security, Service Provider, and Wireless.
  • CCDE
  • CCIE
The CCAr project and exam fee cost $15,000 in total.
The topmost level of accreditation is Architect. 
Cisco Certified Architect (CCAr)

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Choose our Cisco 500-325 exam questions and answer

QUESTION 1
What is the minimum number of blades you must purchase with the CMS2000 server?
A. 10
B. 4
C. 1
D. 8
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2Which purpose of the Call Service Connect of Cisco Spark Hybrid is true?
A. It makes Cisco Spark aware of calls placed between VCS devices
B. It integrates Cisco Spark with Cisco UCM to connect calls
C. It integrates Cisco Spark with Cisco VCS to connect calls
D. It makes Cisco Spark aware of calls placed between UCM, or between HCS, devices
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collaboration/webex-hybrid-services/call-service.html

QUESTION 3Which action does the Cisco Calendar Connector of Cisco Spark enable?
A. It enables connectors that are hosted on Expressway Core to be managed by the Cisco Collaboration Cloud.
B. It enables integration between on-premises calendaring applications, like Microsoft Exchange, and Cisco
Collaboration Cloud.
C. It enables Microsoft Active Directory integration with Cisco Collaboration Cloud.
D. It enables integration between on-premises call processing services and Cisco Collaboration Cloud.
Correct Answer: B
 

QUESTION 4
Which result occurs if the device does not have the Connect at power on check box selected?
A. The device does not power on.
B. The OVA template does not install.
C. The ISO file does not load.
D. The OVF template options do not display.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which setting decides on the memory allocations for each thread executed by the HPC applications?
A. Energy Performance
B. Non-Uniform Memory Access
C. HPC Mode Access
D. CPU Performance
Correct Answer: B


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With the increasing demand of CCIE Wireless technology, the needs of CCIE Wireless v3.1 exam is raising also.In the past Cisco CCIEWireless 400-351 exam resembled "survival of the fittest" and now it is extra like "survival of the smartest".If you want to pass Cisco 400-351 exam you have to get most current and also upgraded 400-351dumps:https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-351.html.

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QUESTION 1
You have a wireless network that authenticates users by using Local WebAuth. Which guest flow feature does LWA
support?
A. RFC 3576
B. self-registration guest portal
C. credentialed guest portal
D. hotspot guest portal with an optional access code
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which protocol allows for IP mobility in-between Data Centers?
A. OTV
B. LISP
C. FABRIC PATH
D. VXLAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3Refer to the exhibit. It belongs to a Cisco IOS AP with just one radio. This portion of configuration refers to a multiple
SSID/VLAN configuration. Which statement is correct?
 
Refer to the exhibit. It belongs to a Cisco IOS AP with just one radio. This portion of configuration refers to a multiple
SSID/WLAN configuration. Which statement is correct?
A. The configuration does not allow for non-corporate clients to connect to any SSID Guest traffic.There fore will not
allowed.
B. \\'mbssid guest-mode\\' is used to allow broad cat of multiple SSIDs on the radio interface. No other \\'mbssid"
commands are needed to achieve this functionality.
C. The AP must have subinterfaces 80,81,and 82 configured on the Radio 0 and Ethernet interfaces.
D. The SSID "EAP" will allow clients to connect to it using any EAP authentication method such as EAP-TLS.
Correct Answer: C
Consider the association process of a wireless client to an SSID. Drag and drop the client actions from the left into the
correct order of operation on the right. Left:
802.11 probe request 802.11 association request EAPol key message 2 802.11 authentication request EAP identity
response Right: Step1 -------------Step1 802.11 probe request Step2 -------------Step2 802.11 authentication request
Step3 -------------Step3 802.11 association request Step4 -------------Step4 EAP identity response Step5 -------------Step5
EAPol key message 2

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Wednesday, October 30, 2019

Pass4itsure has the latest CCIE for R&S 400-201 dumps

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QUESTION 1
Select the statement that best describes "The cure for Amplification Principle" in the Internet domain, as explained in
RFC 3429 (Internet Architectural Guidelines)
A. None of the above
B. Amplification is prevented if local changes have only a local effect as opposed to system in which local change have
a global effect
C. Amplification is prevented if global changes have only a local effect as opposed to systems in which global changes
have a local effect
D. Internet domain does not suffer from "The Amplification Principle" as BGP takes care of misbehaving advertisers
Correct Answer: B
In the Internet domain, it has been shown that increased interconnectivity results in more complex and often slower
BGP routing convergence [AHUJA]. A related result is that a small amount of inter-connectivity causes the output of a
routing mesh to be significantly more complex than its input [GRIFFIN]. An important method for reducing amplification
is ensure that local changes have only local effect (this is as opposed to systems in which local changes have global
effect). Finally, ATM provides an excellent example of an amplification effect: if you lose one cell, you destroy the entire
packet (and it gets worse, as in the absence of mechanisms such as Early Packet Discard [ROMANOV], you will
continue to carry the already damaged packet).

QUESTION 2
A router is unable to route packets over a PPPoE link. What could be the cause of this issue?
A. incorrect IPCP connection for the agreed-upon IP address
B. incorrect dialer map profile
C. incorrect username of the PPP connection
D. incorrect access list
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A service provider has a requirement to deliver WAN gateway functionality to multi- tenant, provider-hosted clouds.
Which cisco platform meets this requirement?
A. Cisco ASR 9000 series
B. Cisco NX-OS
C. Cisco ASR 1000 Series
D. Cisco CSR 1000v
E. Cisco CRS series
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GE) are true? (Choose two.)
A. 10 Gigabit Ethernet does not support VLAN definition
B. 10 Gigabit Ethernet supports full duplex links, but does not support half duplex links.
C. 10 Gigabit Ethernet supports unshielded or shielded twisted-pair cable connections
D. 10 Gigabit Ethernet supports Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD).
E. 10 Gigabit Ethernet supports optical fiber connections in single mode only. Multi mode is not supported.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
In PPPoA architecture, which two methods are most commonly deployed? (Choose two)
A. Terminating PPP sessions at the service provider
B. L2TP tunnelling
C. GRE tunnelling
D. PPP multiplexing
E. PPP framing
Correct Answer: AB

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Tuesday, October 29, 2019

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QUESTION 1
You are developing the routing design for two merging companies that have overlapping IP address space. What must
you consider when developing the routing and NAT design?
A. Global to local NAT translation is done before routing.
B. Local to global NAT translation is done after routing.
C. Global to local NAT translation is done after policy-based routing.
D. Local to global NAT translation is done before policy-based routing.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A large service provider offers VoIP and Video services to business customers. Which three areas should the service
provider monitor related to these services? (Choose three.)
A. bandwidth utilization
B. service response time
C. packet loss
D. jitter
E. latency
F. availability
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 3
You are designing a large Frame Relay WAN for a customer. The routing protocol is OSPF. What is the effect on the
routing table if the WAN interfaces are configured as point-to- multipoint?
A. Only a route for the DR will be present in the routing table.
B. Configuring point-to-multipoint has no effect on the routing table. The route that is configured with the area command
will be seen in the routing table.
C. Multipoint interfaces dynamically add the network of the connected interface.
D. Multipoint interfaces dynamically add a /32 route for each neighbor in the WAN.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is a key design aspect to be considered when designing an IP network that will be carrying real-time VoIP traffic?
A. Minimizing total bidirectional end-to-end delay to 0-150 ms
B. Minimizing total unidirectional end-to-end delay to 150-500 ms
C. Minimizing total bidirectional end-to-end delay to 0-50 ms
D. Minimizing total unidirectional end-to-end delay to 0-150 ms
Correct Answer: D



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Free 300-375 Exam Questions in pdf Format

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is having problems with clients associating to the wireless network. Based on the configuration, which option
describes the most likely cause of the issue?
A. Both AES and TKIP must be enabled.
B. SA Query Timeout is set too low.
C. Comeback timer is set too low.
D. PMF is set to "required".
E. MAC Filtering must be enabled.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
A wireless engineer wants to view how many wIPS alerts have been detected in Cisco Prime. Which lab does the
engineer select in the wireless dashboard?
A. Security
B. Context Aware
C. Mesh
D. CleanAir
Correct Answer: A
Security Index, including the top security issues Adaptive WIPS Rogue classification graph Rogue containment graph
Attacks detected Malicious, unclassified, friendly, and custom rogue APs CleanAir security Adhoc rogues Security

QUESTION 3
An engineer must change the wireless authentication from WPA2-Personal to WPA2-Enterprise. Which three
requirements are necessary? (Choose three.)
A. EAP
B. 802.1X
C. RADIUS
D. pre-shared key
E. 802.11u
F. fast secure roaming
G. 802.11i
Correct Answer: ACG
Difference between WPA called Personal and Enterprise is the authentication method:
Personal WPA relies on a PSK secret (Pre-Shared Key), and you don\\'t need an external server to perform
authentication
Enterprise WPA (as defined in the 802.11i standard) uses WPA2 with AES-CCM encryption, and authentication is
based on 802.1x/EAP using the RADIUS protocol.

QUESTION 4
Which EAP method can an AP use to authenticate to the wired network?
A. EAP-GTC
B. EAP-MD5
C. EAP-TLS
D. EAP-FAST
Correct Answer: C

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When it comes to knowledge of troubleshooting and optimizing enterprise wireless infrastructure and related services, as well as the tools and methods needed to identify and resolve client connectivity, performance and RF issues.

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There are many professional certifications, and self-paced online and degree programs feature Microsoft technology and certification. We recommend that you visit the right training platform where you can get the best range of online courses. The benefit of these courses is that they are designed for the Cisco 300-370 exam. The main benefit of online training is its flexible schedule. Unique facilities can help you receive training when you need it.

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You can get the Cisco 300-370 exam study materials at the bookstore and on the internet. You can also use the questions from the previous year as a reference. These are useful resources that will give you an accurate idea of the CCNP Wireless certification and exams.Proper preparation will help you face the certification exam without any difficulty. Once you pass the exam, you will receive the first certification. After that, you can write it on your resume.

Latest Cisco 300-370 Actual Free Exam Questions

QUESTION 
Refer to the exhibit
An engineer is troubleshooting access point placement issues and suspects that poor placement is causing connectivity
issues. When running the show client detail command, the engineer notices this output. Which option indicates poor
access point placement?
A. excessive number of bytes sent compared to bytes received
B. high signal-to-noise ratio
C. excessive number of data retries
D. low ratio signal strength indicator
E. duplicate received packets
F. poor statistics for the last 90 seconds
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 
Two 5508 Wireless Lan Controllers are managing all Access Points throughout the network The WLCs are located in
different locations to provide geographical redundancy. A Mobility Group has been configured on both WLC\\'s and has
a UP status on both Controllers. The APs in location A are statically configured to use Controller A as the Primary and
Controller as the Secondary. If the WLC in location A goes offline, the APs successfully join the WLC in location but they
do not failover to their Primary configured Controller. What configuration task will fix this issue?
A. Change the AP Failover Priority to critical.
B. Enable AP Fallback globally on the WLC.
C. Configure the WLC in location A as Primary using the CAPWAP AP Controller IP Address command on all the
location A Access Points.
D. Use DHCP Option 43 and specify WLC in location A as Primary.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 
A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject message. Which
action must you take to resolve authentication?
A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.
C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OIDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server.
Correct Answer: B

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Monday, October 28, 2019

Get prepared for the Cisco 300-365 exam

70-410 exam questions and answers pdf 2019

To get MCSE: Server Infrastructure Certification, you need to complete the following exams:

  • Exam 410: Installing And Configuring Windows Sever 2012
  • Exam 411: Administering Windows Server 2012
  • Exam 412: Configuring Advanced Windows Sever 2012 Services
  • Exam 413: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
  • Exam 414: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Today we mainly talk about Exam 70-410.For more information on the exam, please see here.Click here to request the full 70-410 Exam dump-https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-410.html.

Exam 410:

Focus on the installation and configuration of Windows Server 2012, covering the initial implementation and configuration of core services, including Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), network services, Hyper-V configuration, and group policies.

70-410 Q&As 

QUESTION 1
You work as an administrator at Contoso.com. The Contoso.com network consists of a single domain named
Contoso.com. All servers on the Contoso.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
You have received instructions to convert a basic disk to a GPT disk.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to GPT disks? (Choose all that apply.)
A. To convert a basic disk to a GPT disk, the disk must not contain any partitions or volumes.
B. You can convert a basic disk to a GPT disk, regardless of partitions or volumes.
C. GPT is required for disks larger than 2 TB.
D. GPT is required for disks smaller than 2 TB.
E. The GPT partition style can be used on removable media.
F. GPT disks make use of the standard BIOS partition table.
Correct Answer: AC
A. For a drive to be eligible for conversion to dynamic, all basic data partitions on the drive must be contiguous.
C. GPT allows a much larger partition size greater than 2 terabytes (TB) D. 2 terabytes is the limit for MBR disks.
E. Dynamic disks are not supported on portable computers, removable disks, detachable disks that use USB or IEEE
1394 interfaces. F. Windows only supports booting from a GPT disk on systems that contain Unified Extensible
Firmware
Interface (UEFI) boot firmware. Master boot record (MBR) disks use the standard BIOS partition table. GUID partition
table (GPT) disks use unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI). One advantage of GPT disks is that you can have more
than four partitions on each disk. GPT is also required for disks larger than 2 terabytes.
Portable computers and removable media.
Dynamic disks are not supported on portable computers, removable disks, detachable disks that use Universal Serial
Bus (USB) or IEEE 1394 (also called FireWire) interfaces, or on disks connected to shared SCSI buses. If you are using
a
portable computer and right-click a disk in the graphical or list view in Disk Management, you will not see the option to
convert the disk to dynamic. Dynamic disks are a separate form of volume management that allows volumes to have
noncontiguous extents on one or more physical disks. Dynamic disks and volumes rely on the Logical Disk Manager
(LDM) and Virtual Disk Service (VDS) and their associated features. These features enable you to perform tasks such
as
converting basic disks into dynamic disks, and creating fault-tolerant volumes. To encourage the use of dynamic disks,
multi-partition volume support was removed from basic disks, and is now exclusively supported on dynamic disks. GPT
disks can be converted to MBR disks only if all existing partitioning is first deleted, with associated loss of data.
Q. What happens when a basic disk is converted to dynamic?
A. For a drive to be eligible for conversion to dynamic, all basic data partitions on the drive must be contiguous.
If other unrecognized partitions separate basic data partitions, the disk cannot be converted. This is one of the reasons
that the MSR must be created before any basic data partitions. The first step in conversion is to separate a portion of
the
MSR to create the configuration database partition. All non-bootable basic partitions are then combined into a single
data container partition. Boot partitions are retained as separate data container partitions. This is analogous to
conversion of
primary partitions.
Windows XP and later versions of the Windows operating system differs from Windows 2000 in that basic and extended
partitions are preferentially converted to a single 0x42 partition, rather than being retained as multiple distinct 0x42
partitions as on Windows 2000.
 

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All user accounts are in an organizational unit
(OU) named Employees.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1. You link GP1 to the Employees OU.
You need to ensure that GP1 does not apply to the members of a group named Managers.
What should you configure?
A. The Security settings of Employees
B. The WMI filter for GP1
C. The Block Inheritance option for Employees
D. The Security settings of GP1
Correct Answer: D
Set Managers to ?Members of this security group are exempt from this Group Policy object.
Security settings.
You use the Security Settings extension to set security options for computers and users within the scope of a Group
Policy object. You can define local computer, domain, and network security settings. Figure below shows an example of
the
security settings that allow everyone to be affected by this GPO except the members of the Management group, who
were explicitly denied permission to the GPO by setting the Apply Group Policy ACE to Deny. Note that if a member of
the Management group were also a member of a group that had an explicit Allow setting for the Apply Group Policy ACE,
the Deny would take precedence and the GPO would not affect the user. 


QUESTION 3
Your network contains a Hyper-V host named Hyperv1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Hyperv1 has a virtual switch
named Switch1.
You replace all of the network adapters on Hyperv1 with new network adapters that support single-root I/O virtualization
(SR-IOV). You need to enable SR-IOV for all of the virtual machines on Hyperv1.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. On each virtual machine, modify the Advanced Features settings of the network adapter.
B. Modify the settings of the Switch1 virtual switch.
C. Delete, and then recreate the Switch1 virtual switch.
D. On each virtual machine, modify the BIOS settings.
E. On each virtual machine, modify the Hardware Acceleration settings of the network adapter.

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Getting Began

The sooner you start, the more time you will take to prepare for the exam. You don't have to wait until the exam time is up. Try to prepare for the start of the course by reviewing the materials from the end of each course. By starting early and learning regularly, you may have a greater chance to absorb these details, and life will be much easier when you need to bring all of them together for the exam.

Make sure all course materials are organized so that all gaps can be found and filled. If you missed any of the courses, take the notes from your friends as appropriate, rather than scrambling at the last minute. The right organization can help you better understand the materials you must cover and enhance the flow of research procedures.

Make plan

As the exam approaches, you will have to develop a program to help you learn and reduce stress.

  1. The first step is always to figure out how much time and effort you must take to take the exam by asking the following questions: 
  2. How much material do you need to cover? 
  3. How hard will the material be? How much time is available? 
  4. Do you have other priorities during the study? 
  5. What is the format of the exam? 
  6. How important is the exam?

Try pass4itsure Cisco 300-365 Latest Exam Questions & Answers

QUESTION Which two access categories could use TXOP value higher than 0, as per 802.11e standard? (Choose two.)
A. AC_VO
B. AC_BK
C. AC_VI
D. AC_BE
E. AC_NC
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Mobility/emob30dg/WANQoS.pdf


QUESTION
An engineer must create data-link redundancy for the company Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. The engineer has
decided to configure LAG-based redundancy instead of port-based redundancy. Which three features of LAG-based
redundancy helped steer this decision? (Choose three.)
A. All interface traffic passes as long as one port is up.
B. Multiple untagged dynamic interfaces on same port.
C. Interface connection to two separate non-stacked switches.
D. Packets are always sent out on the same port they are received on.
E. Full bandwidth of all links available.
F. Ports are grouped into multiple LAGs.
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION Which feature must be configured on Cisco WLC to prioritize multicast traffic over a wireless network?
A. client link
B. mDNS
C. client band select
D. media stream
Correct Answer: B


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Sunday, October 27, 2019

Everything You Need To Pass The Microsoft Exam 70-412

There is no doubt that obtaining the MCSA certification is a prestigious award that will increase your earning potential.Latest Microsoft MCSA 70-412 exam dumps and practice test questions. 100% Real Most updated Microsoft MCSA 70-412 questions and answers.At https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-412.html.

How to take the Microsoft 70-412 Exam:

1. Find a test center near you to take the Server 70-412 certification exam and they will provide detailed information about the test center location and schedule. The price for this exam is usually around $150.

2. Learn the materials needed to pass the 70-412 exam. This is part of the 70-412 certification exam to help you succeed in the exam.

3. Pass the exam!

Take the Microsoft Windows Server 70-411 and 70-410 courses, which will prepare you for the 70-411 and 70-410 exams. After passing the 70-410, 70-411, and 70-412 exams, you will become a Microsoft Solution Certified Assistant in Windows Server 2012.



Who this course is for:


Any One Who Wishes To Be Either MCSA Or MCSE Certified

Microsoft MCSA 70-412 Practice Test Questions

QUESTION 
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and fabrikam.com. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2003. The contoso.com domain contains domain
controllers that run either Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2. The functional level of the domain is Windows Server 2008. The fabrikam.com domain contains domain controllers that run either Windows Server 2003 or
Windows Server 2008. The functional level of the domain is Windows Server 2003. The contoso.com domain contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the Active Directory Domain Services
server role on Server1.You need to add Server1 as a new domain controller in the contoso.com domain. What should you do?
A. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard.
B. Run adprep.exe /domainprep, and then run dcpromo.exe.
C. Raise the functional level of the forest, and then run dcprorno.exe.
D. Modify the Computer Name/Domain Changes properties.
Correct Answer: A
 


QUESTION
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller
named DC1 and a server named Server1. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You configure the classification

of a share on Server1 as shown in the Share1 Properties exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You configure the resource properties in Active Directory as shown in the Resource Properties exhibit. (Click the Exhibit

button.)
You need to ensure that the Impact classification can be assigned to Share1 immediately.
Which cmdlet should you run on each server?
To answer, select the appropriate cmdlet for each server in the answer area.
Hot Area:
* Set-AdResourceProperty
The Set-ADResourceProperty cmdlet can be used to modify a resource property in Active Directory.
* Update-FsrmClassificationPropertyDefinition
The Update-FsrmClassificationPropertyDefinition cmdlet synchronizes the classification property definitions on the
server with the Resource property definitions in Active Directory Domain Service (AD DS).
Reference: Set-AdResourceProperty; Update-FsrmClassificationPropertyDefinition

QUESTION 6Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains two domain controllers
that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

 You log on to DC1 by using a user account that is a member of the Domain Admins group, and then you create a new
user account named User1.
You need to prepopulate the password for User1 on DC2.
What should you do first?
A. Connect to DC2 from Active Directory Users and Computers.
B. Add DC2 to the Allowed RODC Password Replication Policy group.
C. Add the User1 account to the Allowed RODC Password Replication Policy group.
D. Run Active Directory Users and Computers as a member of the Enterprise Admins group.
Correct Answer: D

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Friday, October 25, 2019

Microsoft 70-413 Exam Questions Answers PDF | Pass Microsoft 70–413 Exam

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Exam 70-413 - Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure

Teaches you how to design, implement, and maintain a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure.You will have the knowledge and skills required to design, implement, and maintain a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure, and be able to apply this knowledge to the MS Server 70-413 Exam.

New Updated 70-413 exam questions and 70-413 braindumps

QUESTION 
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four computers that are
configured as shown in the following table.

You plan to use domain controller cloning.
You need to identify on which computers you can clone domain controllers that run Windows Server 2012.
Which computers should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose all that apply.)
A. Server1
B. Server2
C. Server3
D. Client1
Correct Answer: AD
DC cloning can be done from either Hyper-V on Server 2012 and Hyper-V on Windows 8.
Reference: http://www.anotherwindowsblog.com/2013/04/creating-vm-clones-in-microsoft- hyper-v.html

QUESTION  
Your network contains two data centers named DataCenter1 and DataCenter2. The two data centers are connected by
using a low-latency high-speed WAN link.
Each data center contains multiple Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012. All servers connect to a Storage Area
Network (SAN) in their local data center.
You plan to implement 20 virtual machines that will be hosted on the Hyper-V hosts.
You need to recommend a hosting solution for the virtual machines.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single Hyper- V host fails.
Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single data center fails. What should you recommend?
A. One failover cluster in DataCenter1 and Hyper-V replicas to DataCenter2
B. One failover cluster in DataCenter2 and one DFS Replication group in DataCenter1
C. One failover cluster that spans both data centers and SAN replication between the data centers
D. One failover cluster and one Distributed File System (DFS) Replication group in each data center
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend an Office 365 integration solution.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Active Directory directory synchronization
B. The Active Directory Migration Tool (ADMT)
C. Windows Identity Foundation (WIF) 3.5
D. The Sync Framework Toolkit
Correct Answer: A
* Scenario: Each office is configured as an Active Directory site

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Thursday, October 24, 2019

Cisco 300-360 Real Exam Questions and Answers FREE

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Cisco 300-360 Pdf Dumps-Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks

Cisco 300-360 exam tests a candidate's knowledge of identifying customer and application requirements, applying predictive wireless design principles and conducting site surveys needed to design and optimize Enterprise wireless networks.

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QUESTION 1
The ClO of a company wants to start tracking inventory in the warehouse using RFID tags and their existing wireless
network.
The company hires a wireless engineer to ensure that their existing network can support this new initiative. Which tool in
Cisco Prime can help the wireless engineer?
A. Planning Mode
B. Map Editor
C. Site Survey
D. Location Readiness
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
When designing a WLAN, AP placement is important. Which option describes how to rank the density of APs needed to
support location services versus data and voice services?
A. Data services have the lowest density of APs compared to location services, which has the highest density.
B. Data services have a lower density of APs compared to location services, but more than voice.
C. Voice services have the highest density of APs over location and data services.
D. Voice and data services require a higher density of APs than location services.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An engineer is tasked with designing a WLAN. The customer is prioritizing data speeds to the desktop, but is also
entertaining the idea of adding 802.11 phones in the future. Given this information, how should the engineer conduct the
survey?
A. consider the employee head count in congested office space and limit the edge of each cell to an RSSI of -67mW
B. restrict AP cell edges to -67dB and be sure to strategically place APs in congested office spaces
C. co-locate access points when possible to cover high user areas and place APs at each corner of the facility
D. stagger the AP placements, and be sure to have a high signal to noise ratio that will accommodate the future VoIP
devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
After implementing mesh with an IP surveillance camera connected to the LAN port on a RAP, the engineer notices that
QoS is not being marked. In this setup, what device is responsible for marking upstream traffic from the camera?
A. IP Camera
B. MAP
C. RAP
D. Wireless Controller
E. First-Hop Router
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.)
A. the number of clients that will roam through the facility
B. the type of controller chosen
C. the defined coverage area and customer needs
D. the number of APs dedicated to voice services
E. channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth
Correct Answer: CE


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