[Helpful] Download Latest Cisco 400-251 Dumps Practise Questions

"CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0)", also known as 400-251 exam, is a Cisco Certification. Download Latest Cisco 400-251 dumps practise questions, pass CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0).

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Exam Code: 400-251
Exam Name: CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0)
Q&As: 520   

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Question: 20
What are two benefits of using NetApp Protection Manager? (Choose two.)
A. centralized management of multiple NetApp devices
B. simplified management for D2D backup and restore
C. simplified management for data replication
D. centralized chargeback reporting
400-251 exam Answer: B, C
Question: 21
What can a customer use to quickly manage the full recovery process following a database corruption?
A. RAID-DP
B. SnapMirror
C. SnapManager
D. SnapRestore
Answer: C
Question: 22
A customer utilizing NetApp storage for Windows and/or UNIX file services can expect to realize which benefit as it pertains to having a better RPO?
A. minimal amount of data loss
B. more concurrent users
C. minimal time to recover files
D. greater storage utilization
400-251 dumps Answer: A
Question: 23
What are two ways in which NetApp solutions can help businesses? (Choose two.)
A. by improving business processes
B. by adopting new technology
C. by gaining a competitive advantage
D. by lowering the hardware requirements
Answer: A, C
Question: 24
Which NetApp disk-to-disk backup and recovery solution should a customer consider installing in remote offices when their data resides on Windows and Linux platforms?
A. SnapVault for NetBackup
B. Open Systems SnapVault
C. SnapVault
D. NearStore VTL
400-251 pdf Answer: B
Question: 25
High performance computing (HPC), data-intensive applications (such as seismic processing, digital image creation and media hosting) demand the ability to scale which two factors to extreme levels? (Choose two.)
A. storage capacity
B. performance
C. clustering
D. Total Cost of Ownership
Answer: A, B
Question: 26
What are three benefits of using NetApp storage to support VMware environments? (Choose three.)
A. cloning of virtual machines with no storage overhead
B. support for compliant storage
C. near instantaneous backup and restore capabilities
D. support for encryption
E. support for all of the storage protocols supported by VMware
400-251 vce Answer: A, C, E
Question: 27
A Windows storage consolidation objection you might encounter is that Microsoft provides only limited support for Windows when NetApp is involved. What is the most appropriate response to this objection?
A. Microsoft and NetApp provide joint support through an OEM Premier Support Agreement.
B. NetApp unified storage enables content and/or Write Once Read Many (WORM) storage on any NetApp system allowing Exchange to be more efficient.
C. NetApp and Microsoft have a licensing agreement wherein Microsoft shares Windows communication protocols for data storage.
D. NetApp experience in large-scale enterprise deployments has earned the trust of thousands of enterprise customers.
Answer: A
Question: 28
Which three customer challenges does a NetApp storage solution for a NAS environment address? (Choose three.)
A. SAN fabric costs
B. disruptive storage provisioning
C. server platform deployment
D. storage utilization
E. data sharing between UNIX and Windows
400-251 exam Answer: B, D, E
Question: 29
Click the exhibit button. Given the following BayStack 325-24T switch configuration: VLAN 10 is a port based VLAN. Port 1 is an untagged member of VLAN 10. Port 5 is a tagged member of VLAN 10. The device on Port 1 transmits an untagged frame to the device on Port 5. How will an untagged frame be treated when it reaches Port 5 on this switch?
A. It will be discarded when it is received.
B. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 6, it will be tagged, and transmitted out Port 5 with Priority 2.
C. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 6, it will be tagged, and transmitted out Port 5 with Priority 6.
D. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 2, it will be tagged, and transmitted out Port 5 with Priority 2.
Answer: C
Question: 30
Given the following information: A BayStack 460-24T-PWR switch is being installed. The switch will be fully populated with all devices requiring Power over Ethernet (PoE). The switch has been connected to both internal and external power sources. The switch will be configured through web-based management. Once you access the BayStack 460 via the BS460_24T_PWR(config)#poe poe-dc-source command, which configuration will provide the most power to supply PoE to the connected devices?
A. nes -Set DC power source from NES
B. rpsu - Set DC power source from the rpsu
C. baystack10 -Set DC power source from BayStack 10
D. unit -Set power pairs of another unit in a stack
400-251 dumps Answer:A
Question: 31
What is required to apply traffic shaping to an uplink connection from a BayStack 470-48T switch to the Passport 8600 using the Web-based Management System Interface?
A. a Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)
B. NO additional equipment is required
C. a Gigabit Interface Connector (GBIC)
D. a mini Gigabit Interface Connector (GBIC)
Answer: C
Question: 32
You have installed a new BayStack 460-24T switch into a customer's network and are using the QoS Wizard to configure the QoS settings for various IP traffic flows. Which two IP applications can you directly choose in the QoS Wizard to prioritize inbound frames based on traffic type? (Choose two.)
A. E-mail (SMTP)
B. File Transfer (FTP)
C. Multicasting (IGMP)
D. Trivial File Transfer (TFTP)
E. Network Management (SNMP)
400-251 pdf Answer:AB
Question: 33
On a BayStack 470 switch you need to disable Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping for a customer's VLAN (100). Using the Console Interface (CI) Menus, how should you accomplish this task?
A. From the VLAN configuration screen disable IGMP proxy for VLAN 100.
B. From the VLAN configuration screen disable IGMP snooping for VLAN 100.
C. From the VLAN configuration screen, configure the VLAN setup of port 100.
D. From the Switch configuration screen choose IGMP configuration and disable IGMP snooping for
VLAN 100.
Answer: B
Question: 34
Given the following information: A customer has a stack of four BayStack BPS switches configured in pure mode and functioning properly. Two BayStack 450-24T switches are added to the stack to increase its capacity and the BayStack BPS stack operation mode is changed to hybrid. After rebooting the stack, it appears to be functioning properly but, all VLAN configurations have been lost. What is the most likely cause of this issue and which action should you take to resolve it?
A. A BayStack 450-24T has incorrectly been assigned as the base unit. Define a BayStack BPS as the base unit and power cycle the stack to resolve the issue.
B. The Interoperability Software Version Number (ISVN) of the BayStack 450-24T software does NOT match the ISVN of the BayStack BPS software. Upgrade the BayStack 450-24T software to resolve the issue.
C. A hybrid stack only supports 64 VLANs. If more are defined on a pure BayStack BPS stack, when you change to hybrid mode you will lose all the VLANs. A maximum of 64 VLANs can be re-entered to resolve the issue.
D. When changing from a pure to a hybrid stack, the VLAN configuration will always be lost. Before changing to hybrid mode, the configuration file must be downloaded to a TFTP server, and then uploaded after changing to hybrid mode.
400-251 vce Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-208
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions
Q&As: 282   

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QUESTION NO: 89
Which TWO of the following mechanisms cause the ARM processor to take an abort? (Choose two)
A. MPU fault
B. External memory system error
C. Bounced coprocessor instruction
D. Unrecognized instruction opcode
E. Illegal operands for a data-processing instruction
300-208 exam Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 90
An Advanced SIMD intrinsic has the prototype: uint8xl6x2_t vld2q_u8 (uint8_t const * ptr); How many bytes does this intrinsic load from memory?
A. 2
B. 16
C. 32
D. 256
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 91
In which of these cases would code have better performance when compiled for Thumb state than when compiled for ARM state?
A. When the processor has no data cache
B. When the code involves many shifting operations
C. When the code has many conditionally executed instructions
D. When the processor can only fetch instructions 16-bits at a time
300-208 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 92
What type of instruction is used for cache maintenance operations?
A. Dedicated ARM instructions
B. Dedicated Thumb instructions
C. CP14 instructions
D. CP15 instructions
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 93
For Cortex-A series cores, what instruction(s) are recommended to implement a mutex or semaphore?
A. SWP and SWPB
B. DSB and ISB
C. LDREX and STREX
D. DMB
300-208 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 94
An undefined instruction will cause an Undefined Instruction exception to be taken when:
A. It is fetched.
B. It is decoded.
C. It is executed.
D. It writes back its results.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 95
In Thumb state an ARMv7-A processor can execute:
A. Only 16-bit Thumb instructions.
B. Only 32-bit Thumb instructions.
C. 16-bit and 32-bit Thumb instructions.
D. 32-bit Thumb and certain ARM instructions.
300-208 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 96
If a Generic Interrupt Controller (GIC) implements 64 priority levels, which priority field bits hold the priority value?
A. bits [5:0]
B. bits [7:2]
C. bits [15:10]
D. bits [31:26]
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 97
What are the values of the NZCV bits in the CPSR after executing the following instructions? LDR R0, = 0xFFFFFFFF ADDS R0, R0, #1
A. 0101
B. 0110
C. 1001
D. 1010
QUESTION NO: 98
Which of the following is the one true statement concerning the surgical treatment of CAD?
A. A coronary artery stent carries a lower rate ofrestenosis than does PTCA.
B. Atherectomy is a prerequisite requirement for PTCA.
C. Venous grafts are significantly superior to arterial grafts in terms of patency.
D. Long term outcome of laser angioplasty is unknown and, thus, are rarely used.
300-208 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 99
A possible mechanism by which chronic exercise training may reduce resting blood pressure in hypertensive individuals is through
A. An increase in plasmarenin.
B. A higher cardiac output.
C. A reduced heart rate.
D. A lower stroke volume.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 100
An embolism
A. Can increase pulmonary vascular resistance.
B. Is excessive fluid retention.
C. Can be triggered by a chemical mediator (e.g., histamine).
D. Is an outward bulging of the ventricularwall.
300-208 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 101
A sedentary lifestyle
A. Has a risk similar to that of hypertension, high cholesterol, and cigarette smoking.
B. Increases HDL cholesterol.
C. Increases the sensitivity to insulin.
D. Has little influence on post-MI mortality rates.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 102
Body fat appears to be most dangerous when
A. Weight for height exceeds 20% above recommended.
B. It exceeds 25% for males and 30% for females.
C. Central (android) obesity is present.
D. The BMI exceeds 25
300-208 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 103
All of the following are considered possible causes of restrictive lung disease EXCEPT
A. Scoliosis.
B. Obesity.
C. Muscular dystrophy.
D. Cigarette smoke.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 104
Which statement below best describes the condition of asthma?
A. Narrowing of the bronchial airways.
B. Alveolar destruction.
C. Ventilatory dead space.
D. Respiratory muscular atrophy.
300-208 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 105
Metabolic syndrome (also referred to a syndrome X or the deadly quartet) is comprised of
A. Elevated TC, obesity, diabetes, and physical inactivity.
B. Central obesity, elevated LDL cholesterol, diabetes, and physical inactivity.
C. Low HDL cholesterol, cigarette smoking, hypertension, and physical inactivity.
D. Central obesity, elevated triglycerides and low HDL cholesterol, hypertension, and insulin resistance.





Answer: D

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Exam Code: 300-320
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Updated: Oct 14, 2017
Q&As: 211   

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QUESTION NO: 77
Which GSC describes the degree to which processing logic influenced the development of the
application?
A. Transaction rate
B. Complex processing
C. Performance
D. Reusability
300-320 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 78
Which functional size (FS) is associated with the measurement at any time dring the application's
lifecycle?
A. Application FS
B. Adjusted FS
C. Enhancement project FS
D. Development project FS
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 79
Documentation of a function point count can include:
A. Identification of missing source documentation
B. Each data function and the number of DETs and RETs
C. Each transactional function and the number of DETs and RETs
D. B and C
300-320 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 80
In which life cycle phase can size NOT be measured?
A. Proposal
B. Requirements
C. Design
D. Construction
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 81
Which of the following defines the user view?
A. Translation of the technical solution into the user's language
B. Functional User Requirements as perceived by the user
C. Architectural representation of the user's business solution
D. None of the above
300-320 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 82
Which of the following statements regarding an application is (are) true?
A. An application is a cohesive collection of automated procedures and data supporting a business objective.
B. An application consists of one or more components, modules, or subsystems.
C. An application is defined by the software developers based upon the platform, operating system, and database.
D. A and B
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 83
Which of the following best describes the FP counting boundary?
A. The boundary indicates the border between data and transaction function types
B. The boundary indicates the presence of external users and application domains
C. The boundary indicates the conceptual interface between the software under study and its
users
D. The boundary indicates the presence of internal users and application domains
300-320 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 84
The counting scope is defined as:
A. The boundary that indicates the functionality which is included in all FP counts.
B. A set of Functional User Requirements to be included in the function point count.
C. A FP count boundary that indicates all the user identifiable functionality.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 85
What is the term for data that specifies what, when or how data is to be processed by an elementary process?
A. Controlling data
B. Calculating information
C. Control information
D. Manipulating data
300-320 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 86
Which is the primary difference between an 1LF and an EIF?
A. An EIF is referenced by the application being counted, while an 1LF is not referenced
B. An EIF is referenced by the application being counted, while an ILF is maintained and not referenced
C. An ILF is not maintained by the application being counted, while an EIF is
D. An EIF is not maintained by the application being counted, while an ILF is
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 87
Which of the following statements regarding EIF counting is true?
A. If an EIF is used in multiple processes, count the EIF as many times as the number of processes
B. Every physical file referenced by an application is to be counted as an EIF for the application
C. If a group of data was not counted as an ILF, then it should be counted as an EIF
D. None of the above
300-320 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 88
What is the primary intent of an EIF?
A. Hold data maintained through one or more elementary processes of the application being counted
B. Maintain one or more groups of data and/or to alter the behavior of the system
C. Hold data referenced trough one or more elementary process of the application being counted
D. Present information to a user through processing logic other than, or in addition to, the retrieval
of data or control information
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 89
Which transactional function cannot alter the behavior of the application?
A. EI
B. EO
C. EQ
D. Both A and C
300-320 pdf Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-075
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0
Q&As: 377   

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QUESTION: 38
Four emergency response facilities need to be placed so that the greatest number of people
in a community can be reached within five minutes. Which analysis method is used to
make this determination?
A. location allocation
B. closest facility
C. route
D. buffer
300-075 exam Answer: A
Reference: :
xample1: Locating an ERS center)
QUESTION: 39
A representation layer has been defined using the option to save changes to the geometry of
the supporting feature. If the geometry of the feature is modified using the tools from the
Representation toolbar, what will be modified?
A. the Shape field of the feature
B. the shape in the override field
C. the feature attributes
D. the override attributes
Answer: B
QUESTION: 40
An analyst has a multi band raster, but needs just one of the bands for a project. Which
geoprocessing tool should be used to extract a single band?
A. Slice (3D Analyst)
B. Extract by Attributes (Spatial Analyst)
C. Composite Bands (Data Management)
D. Clip (Data Management)
Answer: C
300-075 dumps Reference: :
QUESTION: 41
An ArcGIS user has multiple tables that must be input into a single model. What can the
user add to the model to automate the model to run on all tables?
A. Environment variable
B. Iterator
C. parameter variable
D. precondition
Answer: B
QUESTION: 42
An ArcGIS user receives parcel data from the regional government, which is supposed to
line up with parcels in the data maintained by the local government. The user is tasked with
reconciling the discrepancies between the local and regional data. In which situation are the
parcel boundaries within the local data more likely to be accurate than the regional data?
A. when local records show a parcel subdivided in 2007 but regional records do not include
the update
B. when regional records show a new survey of a parcel in 1996. but local records do not
include the survey information
C. when a privately owned parcel is donated to the local government in 2002 for a park but
the regional government does not have a record of the new owner
D. when a new subdivision surveyed in 2004 within the regional area is incorporated into
the local area limits in 2007
300-075 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 43
An ArcGIS user has a point feature class, and needs to determine an area of influence for
each point. Which tool should be used to perform this analysis?
A. Shortest Path
B. General QQ Plot
C. Neighborhood Statistics
D. Voronoi MapAnswer: D
QUESTION: 44
A geodatabase designer has a requirement that individual spot elevation points, contours,
and a digital elevation model be stored as separate layers and also be used to generate a
surface for visibility analysis. Which geodatabase dataset type should the designer use?
A. raster catalog
B. terrain dataset
C. raster dataset
D. TIN surface
300-075 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 45
An ArcGIS user is given a geodatabase and tasked with adding a feature class to an
existing geodatabase topology. What should the user do?
A. delete the existing geodatabase topology and create a new one to include the feature
class
B. modify the existing geodatabase topology to include the feature class
C. export the existing geodatabase topology to an XML file include the feature class in
theXMLand import it
D. remove all the feature classes from existing topology and add everything back including
the feature class that needs to be added
Answer: C
QUESTION: 46
Data in the state of Louisiana has the projection defined as WGS 1984 UTM Zone 15S.
The user knows that this area of Louisiana is located m UTM Row S. When added to
ArcMap with other data that draws in the correct location the data with the Zone 15S
definition draws in the vicinity of the North Pole. What is wrong with the projection
definition?
A. The "S" indicates south of the equator instead of UTM Row S
B. The false northing value should be 0, not 10000000
C. The latitude of origin should be -80 degrees, not 0
D. The units should be feet instead of meters
300-075 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 47
An ArcGIS user has a project that requires using an image with a spatial accuracy of 5
meters Root Mean Square Error (RMSE) or better. How should users verify the spatial
accuracy of the image?
A. They should verify that the image resolution is less than 5 meters
B. They should compare the image to surveyed control points of high accuracy and
compute an
RMSE
C. They should visually inspect the image to make sure there are no obvious errors that
would compromise the sp accuracy
D. They should compute an RMSE and compare the results to the results of a Landsat
image
300-075 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 48
An ArcGIS user has a custom .dll that reads the domains available in a geodatabase and
compares them to business rules. What must the user do to have this tool run automatically
each night?
A. add the .dll to a model and schedule the model through the Windows Task Scheduler
B. create a stand-alone application to publish a service and schedule the application
through the
Windows Task Scheduler
C. call the .dll within a Python script and schedule the script through the Windows Task
Scheduler
D. schedule the .dll to run in batch through the Windows Task Scheduler
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Q&As: 208   

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QUESTION 18
Which of the following notations can be used when creating a Drive Mapping in RES Workspace
Manager?
1. Http://to a WebDAV folder
2. Https:// to a WebDAV folder
3. Local path to a folder
4. UNC path to a shared folder
A. 4 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
640-911 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
You want to protect your Relay Server against unauthorized Agent connections. How can that be done?A. Configure an Administrative Role without access to the Relay Servers.
B. Enforce protocol encryption between the Relay Server and the Agents.
C. Configure an environment password for the Relay Servers.
D. Create a Scope without access to the Relay Servers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which Access Control criteria can be used restrict Workspace Contains?
1. User/Group
2. Directory Services
3. Client Name
4. Language
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
How can an administrator automatically add an RES Workspace Manager Agent to a specific workspace?
A. Use the MSI parameter ADDTOWORKSPACE when installing the Agent.
B. Use RES Automation Manager.
C. Select the option `Use as default workspace' in the RES Workspace Manager console.
D. Edit the config.xml file.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which of the following tasks are performed by the RES Workspace Manager Agent Service?
1. Checking Datastore connectivity
2. Unlocking and locking the User Registry
3. Handle license requests
A. Only 1
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which log shows if the environment is sized correctly to handle session starts without exceeding the
configured maximum number of simultaneous logons?
A. CPU Optimization Log
B. Access Balancing Log
C. Session Log
D. Global Error log
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
You want to display a series of elements. Which choice demonstrates the correct syntax for an array in
JavaScript?
A. var myArray = Array(1,2,3,4,5)for (var i = 0; i < myArray.[i]; i++ ){document.write( myArray[i] + "<br />" );
B. var myArray = new Array(1,2,3,4,5)for (var i = 0; i < myArray.length ; i++ ) {document.write( myArray[i]
+ "<br />" );
C. var myArray = new Array(1,2,3,4,5)for (var i = 1; i < myArray.length; i-- ) {document.write
( myArray.length + "<br />" );
D. var myArray = Array(1,2,3,4,5)for (var i = 1; i < myArray.[i] ; i-- ){document.write( myArray[i] + "<br />" );
640-911 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
ABC Company has a 2.4 and 5 GHz WLAN deployment supporting four bands in the 5 GHz range (UNII 1,
UNII 2, UNII 2e, and UNII 3). DFS functionality is enabled as required by the regulatory domain. Band
steering is also enabled to encourage dual-band clients to use frequency bands with more capacity.
Your performance analysis shows that many dual-band VoWiFi client devices will move back and forth
between 2.4 and 5 GHz as the user roams throughout the building. All APs have 2.4 and 5 GHz radios
enabled.
This "band hopping" behavior is viewed by network staff to be undesirable. What is the most likely cause of
the unpredictable client band selection behavior?
A. Interference from 5 GHz radar sources has increased frame corruption and retries on channels 36-48
in UNII 1.
B. 5 GHz frequencies offer better RF penetration than 2.4 GHz, but 2.4 GHz offers more voice call
capacity and lower latency than 5 GHz.
C. The voice client does not support DFS, and therefore experiences some 5 GHz coverage holes as it
moves through the network.D. The client's band selection algorithm prefers 5 GHz, but band steering behavior usually steers 75- 85%
of client devices to 2.4 GHz.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Given:
You were previously on-site at ABC's facility to conduct a pre-deployment RF site survey. The WLAN has
been deployed according to your recommendations and you are on-site again to perform a network
validation.
When performing this type of post-deployment RF site survey for VoWiFi, what are two steps that must be
performed? (Choose two)
A. Coverage analysis to verify appropriate coverage and roaming boundaries
B. Spectrum analysis to locate and identify RF interference sources
C. Hidden node analysis to identify and relocate existing hidden nodes
D. Protocol analysis to discover channel use on neighboring APs
E. Application analysis with an active phone call on a VoWiFi handset
640-911 exam Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 27
Given: To ease user complexity, your company has implemented a single SSID for all employees.
However, the network administrator needs a way to control the network resources that can be accessed by
each employee based on their department.
What WLAN feature would allow the network administrator to accomplish this task?
A. SNMP
B. VRRP
C. RBAC
D. IPSec
E. WIPS
F. WPA2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
As a consultant, you've been hired by XYZ Company to provide recommendations about client device
selection, operation, and interoperability. What information should be considered to help them choose the
right WLAN client devices?
A. 802.11n OFDM is more susceptible to high-power, narrowband interference than 802.11a OFDM.
B. In order to earn Wi-Fi Alliance certification, 802.11n clients stations are required to support both 2.4
and 5 GHz frequencies
C. 802.11a/g devices may support WMM, but all 802.11n devices are required to support WMM.
D. An 802.11g/n AP that is configured to support only OFDM data rates will allow HR/DSSS devices to
associate.
E. When HR/DSSS devices are present, HT MCS rates are disabled for the entire BSS.
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
Given: ABC Hospital is planning a Wi-Fi infrastructure upgrade where the 802.11b/g APs would be
replaced with new dual-radio HT (802.11n) APs. ABC wants to minimize the time and cost associated with
performing a new site survey, so they will be mounting all of the new APs in the same locations and with
the same cable drops as the existing APs.What is one performance drawback with this deployment method?
A. Multipath will increase, causing excessive layer-2 retransmissions. The retransmissions will cause
latency for VoWiFi handsets.
B. Increased receiver sensitivity on the HT APs will cause them to continually change channels to avoid
co-channel interference.
C. If the existing UTP cabling is not Category 6 or better, the total Ethernet backhaul for each AP will be
limited to 100 Mbps.
D. In locations with line-of-sight to client devices and little multipath, the benefits of MIMO may be less
significant than in other areas.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Given: In a single channel architecture (SCA) WLAN system, 802.11n (HT) APs should not share an SSID
with 802.11g (ERP) APs.
What is the reason for this recommendation?
A. Client stations would see two different sets of AP capabilities as they roam between APs with the same
BSSID.
B. The added range of 802.11n APs would cause additional co-channel interference.
C. The additional beacon material in 802.11n beacons would confuse 802.11b/g client stations.
D. Beacons from 802.11n APs use 40 MHz channels, while beacons from 802.11g APs use 20 MHz
channels.
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which unit of measurement is a relative unit that is used to quantify power level changes?
A. dBm
B. dBW
C. dB
D. mW
E. VSWR
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
Given: Return Loss is the decrease of forward energy in a system when some of the power is being
reflected back toward the transmitter.
What causes high return loss in an RF transmission system?
A. A Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) of 1:1
B. An impedance mismatch between devices in the RF system
C. Cross-polarization of the RF signal as it passes through the RF system
D. The use of different connector types in the RF system (e.g. N-type and SMA-type)
E. Low output power at the transmitter and use of a high-gain antenna
640-911 vce Correct Answer: B

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