[Helpful]Cisco 210-065 Dumps Preparation Materials Guaranteed Success

Exam Code: 210-065
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND)
Updated: May 19, 2017
Q&As: 189   
Exam Information: http://www.pass4itsure.com/210-065.html

 Cisco Exam 210-065 Dumps Blog Series       

 QUESTION 9
Metadata types used for information management include which of the following? (Choose 3)
A. Descriptive
B. Foundational
C. Structural
D. Core
E. Administrative
F. Elementary

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the best basis for documenting costs and benefits of an Information Management (IM) solution?
A. Project cost, current storage cost, estimated savings
B. Business impact, software and project cost, increased revenue
C. Number of months to realize financial benefits, estimated rate of return
D. Payback period, net present value, internal rate of return
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
A means to capture, monitor, and leverage intellectual capital within communities of practice is known as A. Information Sharing
B. Knowledge Management
C. Information Transference
D. Knowledge Delivery

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Vital records are defined as records that are fundamental to the functioning of an organization and are necessary to continue operations during
A. Normal circumstances.
B. An external audit.
C. Extraordinary conditions.
D. Litigation.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
In which of the following is a user's navigation through an information space guided and structured by the activities of others within that space?
A. Site map navigation
B. Social navigation
C. Link-based navigation
D. Breadcrumb navigation

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
What is the primary purpose of a legal hold?
A. To distribute notification of the legal obligation to prevent destruction or modification of any information relevant to a lawsuit
B. To collect and export for review any information that pertains to a lawsuit or governmental investigation
C. To collect information based on keyword searches defined by legal counsel in the event of a preservation notice
D. To prevent the modification or destruction of documents and electronically-stored information (ESI) relevant to a lawsuit or governmental investigation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
What type of information should be collected when conducting a data inventory? (Choose 2)
A. Data location
B. Date of the next inventory
C. Owner of the data
D. Data policies
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 16
The purpose of a separator sheet during document capture is to
A. Separate each page of a document in a batch.
B. Separate documents within a batch.
C. Ensure back pages in a batch are scanned.
D. Identify the last page of a document.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
The following factors should be considered when retaining or archiving electronic information for an extended period of time. (Choose 2)
A. Operating system obsolescence
B. Degradation of storage media
C. 24/7 user support
D. Changes in backup frequency

Correct Answer: AB

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Help You to Pass Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Questions

Pass4itsure is offering certifications Implementing Cisco Network Security preparation material with Pass4itsure 210-260 dumps questions and answers for boosting up your 210-260 exam success with 100% money back pass guarantee.

Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: May 14, 2017
Q&As: 238

We are team of certified professionals with lots of experience in writing documents and we take 210-260 exam for your success before publishing them for sale.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Cisco Exam Pass4itsure 210-260 Dumps Blog Series   

QUESTION 18
You must merge two B-Series switches into a single fabric. You have disabled, cleared, and saved the zoning database from one of the fabrics, but when you enable the Inter-Switch Links (ISLs) the fabrics will not merge due to a zoning conflict.
How would you troubleshoot this problem?
A. The principalswitch in the fabric with the cleared zoning configuration must be rebooted.
B. Use the defzone --show command to make sure that the default zone configuration is the same on both fabrics
C. Use the version command to make sure all of the switches in both fabrics are running a compatible version of Fabric OS.
D. Determine the principalswitch in each fabric and connect the ISLs between them

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
A customer has encountered a driver fault with a Brocade HBA.
Which two tools can be used to gather the HBA `supportsave' command logs? (Choose two)

A. Web Tools
B. HCM
C. SAN Health 
D. BCU


Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 20
Which command would be used to find a slow drain device in your fabric using Fabric OS vB.3?
A. fcping
B. errdump
C. bottleneckmon
D. poerperfshow

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
Which protocol is used by Web Tools?
A. IPX
B. HTTP
C. UUCP
D. BGP
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
You are responsible for three fabrics: Cisco MDSTM Brocade M-Series, and Brocade B-Series. You need a single tool that will provide reporting data for all of them. Which application will provide this support?
A. Web Tools
B. HCM
C. SAN Health Diagnostics
D. Fabric Watch


Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23
Which two management interfaces can you use to access Fabric Watch to setup threshold-based monitoring? (Choose two)
A. SNMPv3
B. SAN Health
C. Command Line
D. WebTools

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
Your manager has asked you to report on fan-in and fan-out ratios, cumulative device stages, connection diagrams, and basic switch parameters in a fabric.
Which tool would you use?
A. Web Tools
B. Fabric Watch
C. SAN Health
D. Advanced Performance Monitoring

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
What is maximum number of simultaneous telnet sessions when logging in using the admin account?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 8
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26
Which management interface will present and store one year's worth of performance statistics? 
A. SAN Health
B. Advanced Performance Monitor
C. DCFM
D. Fabric Watch


Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
What is used to forward RASlog events to an external server?
A. http
B. raslogd
C. syslogd
D. rpcd

Correct Answer: B

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[Helpful] Cisco 200-105 ICND2 Dumps Certification Exams Online

CEF is an optimized Layer 3 forwarding path through a router or switch. CEF optimizes routing table lookup by creating a special, easily searched tree structure based on the IP routing table. The forwarding Pass4itsure 300-101 dumps information is called the Forwarding Information Base (FIB), and the cached adjacency information is called the Adjacency Table.

Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: May 14, 2017
Q&As: 247

A lot of sources on router architecture divides router functions into three operational planes:

• Management plane: is concerned with the management of the device. For example, an administrator connecting to a router through a Secure Shell (SSH) connection through one of the router’s VTY lines would be a management plane operation.

• Control plane: is concerned with making packet-forwarding decisions. For example, routing protocol operation would be a control plane function. (the brain of the network)

Pass4itsure 300-101 dumps Data plane: is concerned with the forwarding of data through a router (ASIC). For example, end-user traffic traveling from a user’s PC to a web server on a different network would go across the data plane. (means the hardware itself)   

Cisco Exam 300-101 Dumps Blog Series     

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The 0.0.0.0/0 route is the default route and is listed as the first CEF entry. Here we see the next hop for this default route lists 192.168.201.1 as the default router
(gateway of last resort).




QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer 3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency
command.
Reasons for Incomplete Adjacencies
There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency:
The router cannot use ARP successfully for the next-hop interface.
After a clear ip arp or a clear adjacency command, the router marks the adjacency as incomplete. Then it fails to clear the entry.
In an MPLS environment, IP CEF should be enabeled for Label Switching. Interface level command ip route-cache cef No ARP Entry When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency.
Reference:




QUESTION 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission rate at the same time when packet loss occurs. Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them. Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. This causes problems when used on TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady streams to lose packets simultaneously.




QUESTION 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Correct Answer: ACE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops have been detected. Although some UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and thus never lower transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows in a single service provider class and the class experiences congestion, then TCP flows will continually lower their rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to drop-oblivious UDP flows. This effect is called TCP-starvation/ UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower the overall throughput. TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) mission-critical data is assigned to the same service provider class as (UDP-based) streaming video and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service provider class, the same behavior would be observed, as WRED (for the most part) only affects TCP-based flows. Granted, it is not always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDP-based flows, but it is beneficial to be aware of this behavior when making such application-mixing decisions.





QUESTION 5
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel. It allows hosts to simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content, so it offers a very flexible
coexistence strategy. For sessions that support IPv6, IPv6 is used on a dual stack endpoint. If both endpoints support IPv4 only, then IPv4 is used.
Benefits:
 Native dual stack does not require any tunneling mechanisms on internal networks
Both IPv4 and IPv6 run independent of each other
 Dual stack supports gradual migration of endpoints, networks, and applications.


There are some Pass4itsure 300-101 dumps reasons for you to consider implementing passive interfaces on your network. The best i can think of is security and to have control of which interfaces form adjacencies and send/receive routing updates, as implementing the command “passive-interface” won’t allow the propagation of routing updates but in some protocols it will allow receiving routing updates.

This is most useful Pass4itsure 300-101 dumps in edge routers connected to SP premises and distribution routers. Enabling routing indiscriminately on several or all interfaces may increase the chances for the insertion of unauthorized routing peers. Also, unnecessary routing protocol exchanges increase CPU overhead on the router.

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100% Real Cisco 200-125 Dumps Certification Exam Are Based On The Real Exam

 Many IT institutions offer Cisco 200-125 dumps Certified Wireless Network Administrator study material as well as general guidance on CWNA Certification. But Pass4itsure usually the study material obtained through these sources is too detailed and does not attract the attention of the candidates.

Exam Code: 200-125

Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Updated: May 01, 2017
Q&As: 646   
Exam Information: http://www.pass4itsure.com/200-125.html

Cisco 200-125 exam charges for exam objectives, Pass4itsure which goes by the product number Cisco 200-125 in the Pass4itsure catalog, on a per-core basis Cisco 200-125 dumps exam sample questions. Assuming the prices are the same even though the name has changed and the release has been revved, you can see the prices here.

QUESTION 18
What step can be taken to ensure the Enterprise proxy is applied to all users on a particular server?
A. Apply proxy configuration on the server.
B. Apply proxy configuration on the Wi-Fi profile.
C. Apply proxy configuration on the BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager users group.
D. Apply PAC proxy configuration to all users on the server.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 19
What group would an end user need to be assigned to in order to use the BlackBerry Web Desktop?
A. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager users
B. Junior Help Desk role
C. Security Administrator role
D. User only Administrator role

Correct Answer: A



QUESTION 20
When searching for users with a specific software configuration assigned, the following message is
displayed: The BlackBerry Administration Service cannot find the records you were looking for. Verify the
search criteria you specified and try again.
What is the MOST likely cause and corrective action to take?

A. The search modules threw an exception; log out and try the search again.
B. The search resulted in no matches; make sure search terms are valid and try again if the result was unexpected.
C. The search was not able to connect to the configuration database to submit the search; verify connectivity to the database server and try again.
D. The search module did not understand the criteria; make sure search terms are valid and try again.
Correct Answer: B



QUESTION 21
What activation setting is new at the server level for BlackBerry Device Service (BDS) 6.2?
A. Register activation information with BlackBerry Infrastructure
B. Allow activation information to be emailed
C. Maximum device activation attempts
D. Edit activation settings

Correct Answer: A
200-125 Dumps QUESTION 22
To add a permission to a role or remove an existing permission from a role, which built-in role would be used?
A. Enterprise Administrator
B. Server Only Administrator
C. Security Administrator
D. User Only Administrator

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
What is the main function of the Enterprise Management Web Service?
A. Manages HTTP web traffic sent from the BlackBerry Smartphone browser
B. Provides a web console to manage connections to the Microsoft Exchange server
C. Interlaces between the Microsoft Exchange server and the BlackBerry Smartphone to manage Active sync command policies
D. Communicates commands, configures information, IT Policies, VPN Profiles, Wi-Fi Profile, and email profiles between the BlackBerry Administration Service and the BlackBerry Smartphone

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
The BlackBerry Device Service (BDS) and device automatically renew the client certificate when it expires after
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
How can Blackberry Hub be searched?
A. Unified Inbox-> Settings -> Search
B. Unified Inbox-> Options -> Search
C. Unified Inbox-> Menu-> Search
D. Swipe down -> Search

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
A new user does not know how to activate their BlackBerry device, and an activation password has not yet been set. To guide them through the activation procedure, the user should first be instructed to log into
A. BlackBerry Administration Service.
B. The BlackBerry Infrastructure.
C. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager.
D. BlackBerry Link. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What action is taken to access the BlackBerry Hub?
A. Swipe up from the Home Screen
B. Swipe right from the Home Screen
C. Swipe down from the Home Screen
D. Swipe left from the Home Screen

Correct Answer: B
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